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Gupta MA, Gupta AK. Olanzapine is effective in the management of some self-induced dermatoses: three case reports. Cutis 2000; 66:143-6. [PMID: 10955197] [Citation(s) in RCA: 0] [Impact Index Per Article: 0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 02/17/2023]
Abstract
Self-inflicted dermatoses are often difficult to treat. We present three patients with excoriated acne, self-induced skin ulcers, and trichotillomania, respectively, whose symptoms responded favorably to a 2- to 4-week course of the atypical antipsychotic olanazpine at a dosage of 2.5 to 5.0 mg daily. In two of three patients, the efficacy of the olanzapine was most likely related to an attenuation of dissociative symptoms that were associated with the self-induced skin ulcers and trichotillomania.
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602
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Misra V, Gupta SC, Tandon SP, Gupta AK, Sircar S. Cytohistological study of urinary bladder neoplasms. INDIAN J PATHOL MICR 2000; 43:303-9. [PMID: 11218677] [Citation(s) in RCA: 0] [Impact Index Per Article: 0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 02/19/2023] Open
Abstract
Eighty patients presenting with painless hematuria and 24 patients of transitional cell carcinoma bladder coming for follow up were included in this study to assess the role of exfoliative (voided urine) and lavage (saline lavage) cytology in initial diagnosis and follow up of the patient with carcinoma bladder. Freshly voided urine samples and saline lavage bladder washing samples were collected. A thorough cystoscopic examination was done and biopsy was taken from any apparent growth. Cytological smears were stained with hematoxylene and eosin and PAP's stain, histology sections were stained with hematoxylene and eosin. A statistically significant correlation (p < 0.001) was observed between the increasing grade of malignancy and cytopositivity. A good association was observed between histology and two methods of cytology (p < 0.01). The sensitivity, specificity and overall diagnostic accuracy of lavage cytology was more as compared to exfoliative cytology (71.05%, 56.0%, 78.85% Vs 47.37%, 41.18% and 61.54%). Cystopositivity was more with single large sessile tumour as compared to multiple small pedunculated tumours. Cytohistological discrepancy was observed in patients of transitional cell carcinoma with recurrence. It is concluded that cytology may act as a good adjuvant to histology in picking up early flat lesions and/or follow up of patients with transitional cell carcinoma.
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603
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604
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605
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Gupta AK, Bernhard EJ, Bakanauskas VJ, Wu J, Muschel RJ, McKenna WG. RAS-Mediated radiation resistance is not linked to MAP kinase activation in two bladder carcinoma cell lines. Radiat Res 2000; 154:64-72. [PMID: 10856967 DOI: 10.1667/0033-7587(2000)154[0064:rmrrin]2.0.co;2] [Citation(s) in RCA: 30] [Impact Index Per Article: 1.3] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Grants] [Track Full Text] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 11/03/2022]
Abstract
The expression of activated RAS oncogenes has been shown to increase radioresistance in a number of cell lines. The pathways by which RAS leads to radioresistance, however, are unknown. RAS activates several signal transduction pathways, with the RAF-MAP2K-MAP kinase pathway perhaps the best studied. MAP kinase has also been shown to be activated by radiation through this pathway. Given the important role of MAP kinase in multiple signaling events, we asked if radioresistance induced by RAS was mediated through the activation of MAPK. Cells of two human bladder carcinoma cell lines were used, one with a mutated oncogenic HRAS (T24) and other with a wild-type HRAS (RT4). The surviving fraction after exposure to 2 Gy of radiation (SF2) for the T24 cell lines was found to be 0.62, whereas that for RT4 cells was 0.40. Treatment with the farnesyl transferase inhibitor (FTI) L744,832, which inhibits RAS processing and activity, decreased the SF2 of T24 cells to 0.29, whereas the SF2 of RT4 cells remained unchanged after FTI treatment, thus demonstrating the importance of RAS activation to the radiosensitivity of cells with mutated RAS. MAP kinase activation was found to be constitutive and dependent on RAS in T24 cells, while it was inducible by radiation and was independent of RAS in RT4 cells. Treatment of both cell lines with the MAP2K inhibitor PD98059 inhibited MAPK activation; however, inhibiting MAPK activation had no effect on radiation survival of T24 or RT4 cells. These data indicate that MAPK activation does not contribute to RAS-induced radioresistance in this system.
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606
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Gupta AK, Humke S. The prevalence and management of onychomycosis in diabetic patients. Eur J Dermatol 2000; 10:379-84. [PMID: 10882947] [Citation(s) in RCA: 0] [Impact Index Per Article: 0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 02/16/2023]
Abstract
The incidence of diabetes mellitus is increasing throughout the world. Diabetic patients must cope with the serious complications of this condition, such as renal disease, retinopathy and the diabetic foot. To date, very few studies have examined the prevalence of onychomycosis among diabetic subjects. However, two recent studies highlight an increased incidence of onychomycosis and other superficial fungal infections in these patients. Nail and other fungal skin infections pose a greater risk in this patient population because of the possible sequelae. In addition, impaired sensation in the lower extremities can mask minor abrasions and ulcerations on a diabetic patient's foot, which may develop into serious bacterial infections and contribute to the severity of the diabetic foot. Given the potential morbidity that may result from fungal infections of the extremities, effective treatment is of paramount importance. An ideal antifungal agent should combine a broad spectrum of activity with good efficacy and a favorable safety profile.
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607
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Hutchinson PJ, O'Connell MT, Al-Rawi PG, Maskell LB, Kett-White R, Gupta AK, Richards HK, Hutchinson DB, Kirkpatrick PJ, Pickard JD. Clinical cerebral microdialysis: a methodological study. J Neurosurg 2000; 93:37-43. [PMID: 10883903 DOI: 10.3171/jns.2000.93.1.0037] [Citation(s) in RCA: 194] [Impact Index Per Article: 8.1] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Grants] [Track Full Text] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 11/06/2022]
Abstract
OBJECT Clinical microdialysis enables monitoring of the cerebral extracellular chemistry of neurosurgical patients. Introduction of the technique into different hospitals' neurosurgical units has resulted in variations in the method of application. There are several variables to be considered, including length of the catheter membrane, type of perfusion fluid, flow rate of perfusion fluid, and on-line compared with delayed analysis of samples. The objects of this study were as follows: 1) to determine the effects of varying catheter characteristics on substance concentration; 2) to determine the relative recovery and true extracellular concentration by varying the flow rate and extrapolating to zero flow; and 3) to compare substance concentration obtained using a bedside enzyme analyzer with that of off-line high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC). METHODS A specially designed bolt was used to conduct two adjacent microdialysis catheters into the frontal cortex of patients with head injury or poor-grade subarachnoid hemorrhage who were receiving ventilation. One reference catheter (10-mm membrane, perfused with Ringer's solution at 0.3 microl/minute) was constant for all studies. The other catheter was varied in terms of membrane length (10 mm or 30 mm), perfusion fluid (Ringer's solution or normal saline), and flow rate (0.1-1.5 microl/minute). The effect of freezing the samples on substance concentration was established by on-line analysis and then repeated analysis after storage at -70 degrees C for 3 months. Samples assayed with the bedside enzyme analyzer were reassessed using HPLC for the determination of glutamate concentrations. CONCLUSIONS Two adjacent microdialysis catheters that were identical in membrane length, perfusion fluid, and flow rate showed equivalent results. Variations in perfusion fluid and freezing and thawing of samples did not result in differences in substance concentration. Catheter length had a significant impact on substance recovery. Variations in flow rate enabled the relative recovery to be calculated using a modification of the extrapolation-to-zero-flow method. The recovery was approximately 70% at 0.3 microl/minute and 30% at 1 microl/minute (10-mm membrane) for all analytes. Glutamate results obtained with the enzyme analyzer showed good correlation with those from HPLC.
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608
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Dinesh DS, Kar SK, Kishore K, Palit A, Verma N, Gupta AK, Chauhan DS, Singh D, Sharma VD, Katoch VM. Screening sandflies for natural infection with Leishmania donovani, using a non-radioactive probe based on the total DNA of the parasite. ANNALS OF TROPICAL MEDICINE AND PARASITOLOGY 2000; 94:447-51. [PMID: 10983557 DOI: 10.1080/00034983.2000.11813563] [Citation(s) in RCA: 28] [Impact Index Per Article: 1.2] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Track Full Text] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 12/28/2022]
Abstract
Digoxigenin-labelled total, Leishmania donovani DNA was used as a probe to detect the parasite in Indian Phlebotomus argentipes. The probe was quite sensitive, detecting as little as 0.3 pg parasite DNA, equivalent to approximately 100 parasites. Positive signals could be detected in 12 (32%) of the 38 small (two- to 30-fly) pools of the wild-caught P. argentipes investigated and in a pool of 10 laboratory-bred P. argentipes fed on a patient with post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis. None of the wild-caught P. papatasi, P. sergenti or Sergentomyia sp. or of the newly emerged, laboratory-bred P. argentipes investigated were positive by this probe. The results indicate that such a probe may be very useful in screening sandflies for L. donovani, and so detecting the main vectors and transmission pathways of this parasite, in India and elsewhere.
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609
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Gupta AK, Mitra DK, Berry M, Dinda AK, Bhatnagar V. Sonography and CT of pancreatoblastoma in children. AJR Am J Roentgenol 2000; 174:1639-41. [PMID: 10845499 DOI: 10.2214/ajr.174.6.1741639] [Citation(s) in RCA: 23] [Impact Index Per Article: 1.0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Track Full Text] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 11/18/2022]
Abstract
OBJECTIVE We reveal the sonography and CT findings of three children with pancreatoblastoma. CONCLUSION Pancreatoblastomas are invasive tumors that encase adjacent vessels and infiltrate surrounding organs. Original and atypical findings include metastases to the omentum and lymph nodes of the neck and direct extension of the tumor to the portal vein and its branches.
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610
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Kabra M, Kabra SK, Ghosh M, Gupta AK, Menon PS. Idiopathic cranio-osteoarthropathy. Indian Pediatr 2000; 37:659-62. [PMID: 10869149] [Citation(s) in RCA: 0] [Impact Index Per Article: 0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [MESH Headings] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 02/16/2023]
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611
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Sharma MC, Bimal S, Ranjan A, Das VN, Gupta AK, Kumar N, Kar SK. Relevance of direct agglutination test in seroepidemiological survey of Kala-azar in epidemic foci of Bihar. THE JOURNAL OF COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2000; 32:117-22. [PMID: 11198396] [Citation(s) in RCA: 0] [Impact Index Per Article: 0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 02/19/2023]
Abstract
The performance of direct agglutination test (DAT) was evaluated under field conditions in three endemic districts of Bihar. In three villages of these districts, 197 households were surveyed with a population of 1167 individuals. Out of 1167 individuals, 603 were clinically examined for VL and blood samples of each examined individual were collected for DAT. The proportion of DAT positivity in both males (32.33%) and females (32.94%) was statistically not significant (p > 0.05). The proportion of DAT positivity in all age groups was observed to be similar (p > 0.05). The GMRT was observed highest in active VL cases. Out of 20 DAT positive individuals having fever, 5 were examined parasitologically (bone marrow aspiration) and in three cases positivity was observed. This showed the relevance of DAT in early diagnosis of visceral leishmaniasis and usefulness of DAT in field conditions.
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612
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Gupta AK, Diaz RA, Higham S, Kone BC. alpha-MSH inhibits induction of C/EBPbeta-DNA binding activity and NOS2 gene transcription in macrophages. Kidney Int 2000; 57:2239-48. [PMID: 10844594 DOI: 10.1046/j.1523-1755.2000.00084.x] [Citation(s) in RCA: 24] [Impact Index Per Article: 1.0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Grants] [Track Full Text] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 11/20/2022]
Abstract
BACKGROUND alpha-Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (alpha-MSH) is an endogenous tridecapeptide that exerts anti-inflammatory actions and abrogates postischemic renal injury in rodents. alpha-MSH inhibits lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced gene expression of several cytokines, chemokines, and nitric oxide synthase-2 (NOS2), but the molecular mechanisms underlying these effects have not been clearly defined. To test the hypothesis that alpha-MSH inhibits the expression of inducible trans-activating factors involved in NOS2 regulation, we used RAW 264.7 macrophage cells to examine the effects of alpha-MSH on the activation of nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kappaB) and CCAAT/enhancer binding protein-beta (C/EBPbeta), trans-acting factors known to be involved in LPS + interferon (IFN)-gamma induction of the NOS2 gene. METHODS Gel shift assays were performed to identify NF-kappaB and C/EBP DNA binding activities in LPS + IFN-gamma-treated RAW 264.7 cells in the presence and absence of alpha-MSH. NOS2 promoter assays were conducted to identify the effects of alpha-MSH on LPS + IFN-gamma-mediated induction of NOS2 transcription. RESULTS Gel shift assays demonstrated LPS + IFN-gamma induction of NF-kappaB and C/EBP family protein-DNA complexes in nuclei harvested from the cells. Supershift assays revealed that the C/EBP complexes were comprised of C/EBPbeta, but not C/EBPalpha, C/EBPdelta, or C/EBPepsilon. alpha-MSH (100 nmol/L) inhibited the LPS + IFN-gamma-mediated induction of nuclear DNA binding activity of C/EBPbeta, but not that of NF-kappaB (in contrast to reports in other cell types), as well as the activity of a murine NOS2 promoter-luciferase construct. In contrast, alpha-MSH (100 nmol/L) had no effect on the induction of NOS2 promoter-luciferase genes harboring deletion or mutation of the C/EBP box. CONCLUSIONS These data indicate that alpha-MSH inhibits the induction of C/EBPbeta DNA binding activity and that this effect is a major mechanism by which alpha-MSH inhibits the transcription of the NOS2 gene. The inability of alpha-MSH to inhibit LPS + IFN-gamma induction of NF-kappaB in murine macrophage cells, which contrasts with inhibitory effects of the neuropeptide in other cell types, suggests that cell-type-specific mechanisms are involved.
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613
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Singh G, Sachdev MS, Tirath A, Gupta AK, Avasthi G. Focal cortical-subcortical calcifications (FCSCs) and epilepsy in the Indian subcontinent. Epilepsia 2000; 41:718-26. [PMID: 10840405 DOI: 10.1111/j.1528-1157.2000.tb00234.x] [Citation(s) in RCA: 35] [Impact Index Per Article: 1.5] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Track Full Text] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 11/27/2022]
Abstract
PURPOSE A focal cortical-subcortical calcification (FCSC) is a common finding on computed tomography (CT) in individuals with focal or generalized seizures in the Indian subcontinent. We sought to determine the relation of FCSCs to epilepsy by comparing the lobe of seizure origin by electroclinical and CT evaluations and to study the nature and severity of epilepsy associated with FCSCs. METHODS The relation of these FCSCs to epilepsy/seizures was studied in 40 patients, seen for the first time to the neurology outpatient department of a tertiary care hospital. An attempt was made to classify seizures and determine their lobe of origin based on clinical-electroencephalographic (EEG) criteria of the International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE). The clinical lobe of origin was compared with the location of the FCSC on CT scan. In addition, records of the CT unit of the same hospital were reviewed retrospecitvely, to identify cases with an FCSC and their referral diagnoses. RESULTS Thirty-one (77.5%) patients with FCSCs were considered to have localization-related epilepsy (frontal lobe epilepsy, 20; temporal lobe epilepsy, three; parietal lobe epilepsy, one; occipital lobe epilepsy, three; and definitely localization related but having ambiguous localization features, four) based on ictal semiology and EEG studies. Other ILAE categories in the cohort included epilepsy without unequivocal focal or generalized features (four patients; 10%), isolated seizures (one patient; 2.5%), juvenile absence epilepsy (one patient; 2.5%), and insufficient data to classify epilepsy (three patients; 7.5%). Radiologic sites for FCSCs included frontal (20; 50%), temporal (six; 15%), parietal (seven; 17.5%), and occipital (seven; 17.5%). Electroclinical and radiologic data were congruent in localizing and lateralizing seizures in 22 (55%) patients. The FCSC was truly incidental in one patient with juvenile absence epilepsy. Discordance between the clinical and radiologic localizations was noted in five (12.5%) instances. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) did not reveal additional lesions corresponding to lobes of origin as determined by electroclinical analysis. Discordance was surmised to be a result of seizure spread from a silent region to symptomatic cortex. In 12 (30%) patients, electroclinical and radiologic congruence could not be ascertained because ictal descriptions were either inadequate or ambiguous, and EEG findings were noncontributory. Review of 4,452 CT scans of brain performed in the CT unit revealed 29 (0.65%) cases with FCSCs in individuals with nonseizure disorders, that could be labeled as incidental. CONCLUSIONS An FCSC is an important radiologic finding in localization-related epilepsy in the Indian subcontinent. The severity of epilepsy ranges from asymptomatic cases to daily seizures.
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614
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Nagarkar AN, Gupta AK, Mann SB. Psychological findings in benign paroxysmal positional vertigo and psychogenic vertigo. THE JOURNAL OF OTOLARYNGOLOGY 2000; 29:154-8. [PMID: 10883828] [Citation(s) in RCA: 0] [Impact Index Per Article: 0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 02/16/2023]
Abstract
OBJECTIVE A prospective study conducted at the Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh, India, to study the psychological factors in cases of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) and to compare them with patients with psychogenic vertigo. METHODS In the present study, 75 subjects each (25-45 years) with BPPV and psychogenic vertigo were compared with an equal number of age- and sex-matched normal controls using the psychological and audiovestibular test batteries. RESULTS The psychological variables tested, namely, loneliness, depression, anxiety components, introversion, and social desirability, were found to be statistically significant (p < .01) for the three groups (i.e., BPPV, psychogenic, and control). There was no significant difference among the three groups on the audiovestibular measures. CONCLUSION Psychological factors play an important role in patients with BPPV. The provoking activities result in precipitation of an acute attack and the patients experience heightened emotionality because of the incapacitating feeling of severe vertigo.
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615
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Gupta AK, Del Rosso JQ. An evaluation of intermittent therapies used to treat onychomycosis and other dermatomycoses with the oral antifungal agents. Int J Dermatol 2000; 39:401-11. [PMID: 10944084 DOI: 10.1046/j.1365-4362.2000.00964.x] [Citation(s) in RCA: 29] [Impact Index Per Article: 1.2] [Reference Citation Analysis] [MESH Headings] [Track Full Text] [Journal Information] [Submit a Manuscript] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 11/20/2022]
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616
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Abstract
Onychomycosis is found more frequently in the elderly, and in more males than females. Onychomycosis of the toes is usually caused by dermatophytes, most commonly Trichophyton rubrum and T. mentagrophytes. The most common clinical presentations are distal and lateral subungual onychomycosis (which usually affects the great/first toe) and white superficial onychomycosis (which generally involves the third/fourth toes). Only about 50% of all abnormal-appearing nails are due to onychomycosis. In the remainder, trauma to the nail, psoriasis and conditions such as lichen planus should be considered in the differential diagnosis. Therefore, the clinical impression of onychomycosis should be confirmed by mycological examination, whenever possible. The management of onychomycosis may include no therapy, palliative treatment with mechanical or chemical debridement, topical antifungal therapy, oral antifungal agents or a combination of treatment modalities. In the US, the only new oral agents approved for treatment of onychomycosis are terbinafine and itraconazole. Fluconazole is approved for onychomycosis in some other countries. Ciclopirox nail lacquer has recently been approved in the US for the treatment of onychomycosis. In some other countries topical agents such as amorolfine are also used. Griseofulvin and ketoconazole are no longer preferred for the treatment of onychomycosis. The new oral antifungal agents are effective and well tolerated in the elderly. Patient selection should be based on the history (including systems review and medication record), examination and baseline monitoring, if indicated. Laboratory monitoring during therapy for onychomycosis varies among physicians. A combination of removal of the diseased nail plate or local measures and oral antifungal therapy may be optimal in certain instances, e.g. when lateral onychomycosis or dermatophytoma are present. For dermatophyte toe onychomycosis the recommended duration of therapy with terbinafine is 250 mg/day for 12 weeks. For itraconazole (pulse) the regimen is 200 mg twice daily for 1 week on, 3 weeks off, repeated for 3 consecutive pulses and with fluconazole the regimen is 150 to 300 mg once weekly given for a usual range of 6 to 12 months or until the nail plate has grown out. In some instances, if extra therapy is required, one suggestion is that 4 weeks of terbinafine or an extra pulse of itraconazole are given between months 6 and 9 from the start of therapy. Once cure has been achieved, it is important to counsel patients on the strategies of reducing recurrence of disease.
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617
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Gupta AK, Dlova N, Taborda P, Morar N, Taborda V, Lynde CW, Konnikov N, Borges M, Raboobee N, Summerbell RC, Adam P, Hofstader SL, Aboobaker J. Once weekly fluconazole is effective in children in the treatment of tinea capitis: a prospective, multicentre study. Br J Dermatol 2000; 142:965-8. [PMID: 10809856 DOI: 10.1046/j.1365-2133.2000.03479.x] [Citation(s) in RCA: 36] [Impact Index Per Article: 1.5] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Track Full Text] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 11/20/2022]
Abstract
In an open, multicentre evaluation carried out in Brazil, Canada and South Africa we have demonstrated that fluconazole 8 mg kg-1 once weekly is effective in tinea capitis caused by Trichophyton and Microsporum species. There were 61 children, aged (mean +/- SE) 5.0 +/- 0.3 years; weight (mean +/- 5.6) 20.0 +/- 0.9 kg; 41 males, 20 females; one Asian, 57 Black, one Caucasian and two Hispanic. The organisms were Trichophyton violaceum (33 patients), T. tonsurans (11) and Microsporum canis (17). The extent of tinea capitis at pretherapy was: mild (18 patients), moderate (30) and severe (13). Patients with tinea capitis due to Trichophyton species were initially treated for 8 weeks with an extra 4 weeks of fluconazole if clinically indicated. All 44 patients with tinea capitis due to Trichophyton species were completely cured (clinically and mycologically) when evaluated 8 weeks after completion of active treatment, following 8 weeks of once weekly dosing in 35 patients and 12 weeks of once weekly dosing in nine patients. In Microsporum canis tinea capitis, an extra 4 weeks was administered at week 12 in patients where it was clinically indicated at the time. Sixteen of 17 patients with M. canis tinea capitis were completely cured (clinically and mycologically) when evaluated 8 weeks following the end of treatment when given for 8, 12 and 16 weeks in 12, one and three patients, respectively. Overall, complete cure (clinical and mycological) occurred in 60 of 61 patients at follow-up 8 weeks from the end of therapy. The duration of once weekly fluconazole in the 60 patients was 8 weeks (47 patients), 12 weeks (10 patients) and 16 weeks (three patients), respectively. Clinical adverse effects consisted of a mild, reversible gastrointestinal complaint in three (4.9%) of 61 children. A laboratory abnormality with elevated liver function tests was observed in one (5.9%) of 17 patients; this was asymptomatic, and reversible. No patient discontinued therapy. The data suggest that once weekly fluconazole dosing is effective, safe and associated with high compliance when used to treat tinea capitis.
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Abstract
A system based on PCR and restriction endonuclease analysis was developed to distinguish the seven currently recognized Malassezia species. Seventy-eight strains, including authentic culture collection strains and routine clinical isolates, were investigated for variation in the ribosomal DNA repeat units. Two genomic regions, namely, the large subunit of the ribosomal gene and the internal transcribed spacer (ITS) region, were amplified by PCR, and products were digested with restriction endonucleases. The patterns generated were useful in identification of five out of seven Malassezia species. M. sympodialis was readily distinguishable in that its ITS region yielded a 700-bp amplified fragment, whereas the other six species yielded an 800-bp fragment. M. globosa and M. restricta were very similar in the regions studied and could be distinguished only by performing a hot start-touchdown PCR on primers for the beta-tubulin gene. Primers based on the conserved areas of the Candida cylindracea lipase gene, which were used in an attempt to amplify Malassezia lipases, yielded an amplification product after annealing at 55 degrees C only with M. pachydermatis. This specific amplification may facilitate the rapid identification of this organism.
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Gupta AK, Cohan RH, Francis IR, Sondak VK, Korobkin M. CT of recurrent retroperitoneal sarcomas. AJR Am J Roentgenol 2000; 174:1025-30. [PMID: 10749244 DOI: 10.2214/ajr.174.4.1741025] [Citation(s) in RCA: 23] [Impact Index Per Article: 1.0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Track Full Text] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 11/18/2022]
Abstract
OBJECTIVE We reviewed the medical records and CT scans of 33 patients with recurrent retroperitoneal sarcomas to determine the patterns of recurrent disease. MATERIALS AND METHODS We reviewed the medical records and CT examinations obtained at the time the recurrence was diagnosed and tabulated data for all patients. Data for patients with high-grade malignancies were compared with those of patients with low-grade malignancies to determine whether there were differences in the interval between initial tumor resection and recurrence. We also compared CT appearances to determine patterns of recurrent disease. RESULTS Twenty-five of 33 recurrences were detected within 2 years of initial surgery. Only 16 patients had symptoms, and when present, most symptoms were nonspecific. In 28 (85%) patients, recurrent tumor was in the abdomen at the time of diagnosis. In nine patients, the largest detectable abdominal tumor was less than 5 cm in diameter. Interval to recurrence was similar for patients with low- and high-grade tumors. Although the CT appearance was similar for both grades, distant metastases were identified only in patients with high-grade malignancies. CONCLUSION Primary retroperitoneal malignancies frequently recur within 2 years of initial surgical resection. For asymptomatic patients, diagnosis is typically made during routine follow-up CT. Most patients have abdominal recurrences that may be small when first detected.
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Gupta SC, Misra V, Singh PA, Roy A, Misra SP, Gupta AK. Gall stones and carcinoma gall bladder. INDIAN J PATHOL MICR 2000; 43:147-54. [PMID: 11217272] [Citation(s) in RCA: 0] [Impact Index Per Article: 0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 02/19/2023] Open
Abstract
One hundred and fifty surgically resected gall bladder specimens were included in the study to evaluate the relationship between the prevalence of gall stones and histochemical alteration in sequential changes of metaplasia, dysplasia and neoplasia in gall bladder epithelium. Multiple sections were processed and stained with haematoxylin and eosin, Periodic acid Schiff's stain, Alcian blue (pH 2.5)/Periodic acid, Orcein/Alcian blue (pH 2.5) and Alcian Blue/Periodic acid/Potassium borohydride saponifications stains. Details of gall stones present were also noted. Prevalence of gall stones in gall bladders with metaplastic, dysplastic and neoplastic mucosal changes was significantly higher (P < 0.001) than those gall bladders which had no epithelial changes. Increase in sialomucin with a corresponding decrease in sulphomucin was observed from metaplasia to malignancy. Neutral mucin increased in metaplastic cells but was significantly reduced in neoplastic cells. Loss of O-acylation in sialmucin was also present in neoplastic cells. The histochemical changes suggest that chronic injury due to cholelithiasis induces appearance of neutral mucin positive metaplastic cells, which may further dedifferentiate to sialomucin containing dysplastic or neoplastic cells if the stimulation persists.
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Gupta AK, Kohli Y, Li A, Faergemann J, Summerbell RC. In vitro susceptibility of the seven Malassezia species to ketoconazole, voriconazole, itraconazole and terbinafine. Br J Dermatol 2000; 142:758-65. [PMID: 10792228 DOI: 10.1046/j.1365-2133.2000.03294.x] [Citation(s) in RCA: 109] [Impact Index Per Article: 4.5] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Track Full Text] [Journal Information] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 11/20/2022]
Abstract
Fifty-five strains, either authentic or ex-type, of seven Malassezia species were investigated for in vitro susceptibility to various concentrations (0.03-64.0 microg/mL) of three azole drugs, ketoconazole, voriconazole and itraconazole, as well as the allylamine terbinafine, using the agar dilution method. All strains of the seven Malassezia species were susceptible to the three azole drugs at low concentrations. M. furfur, M. sympodialis, M. slooffiae, M. pachydermatis, M. globosa, M. obtusa and M. restricta were most sensitive to ketoconazole and itraconazole, with minimum inhibitory concentrations (MICs) ranging from < or = 0.03 to 0.125 microg/mL. The recently introduced antifungal, voriconazole, was also very effective, with MIC80 values < or = 0.03 microg/mL for 80% of strains. MICs of terbinafine against the seven Malassezia species ranged from </= 0.03 to 64.0 microg/mL. There were variations in susceptibility of the seven Malassezia species to ketoconazole, voriconazole, itraconazole and terbinafine. Strains of M. furfur, M. globosa and M. obtusa were more tolerant to terbinafine than the remaining Malassezia species; M. sympodialis was highly susceptible. M. furfur strains tested with terbinafine ranged from highly susceptible to relatively resistant. Correct identification of Malassezia species could facilitate selection of appropriate antifungal therapy.
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622
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Chopra J, Kaur N, Gupta AK. Ontogenic changes in enzymes of carbon metabolism in relation to carbohydrate status in developing mungbean reproductive structures. PHYTOCHEMISTRY 2000; 53:539-548. [PMID: 10724178 DOI: 10.1016/s0031-9422(99)00545-2] [Citation(s) in RCA: 4] [Impact Index Per Article: 0.2] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Track Full Text] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 05/23/2023]
Abstract
The content of free sugars and the activities of enzymes involved in carbon metabolism-sucrose synthase, acid and alkaline invertase, phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase, malic enzyme and isocitrate dehydrogenase were determined during seed development in mungbean pods. A decrease in carbohydrate content of pod wall from 10 to 25 days after flowering (DAF) and a concomitant increase in the seed till 20 DAF was observed. Sucrose remained the dominant soluble sugar in the pod wall and seed. In the branch of inflorescence and pod wall, the activities of sucrose metabolizing enzymes, viz. acid and alkaline invertase, sucrose synthase (synthesis and cleavage) and sucrose phosphate synthase were higher at 5-10 DAF, whereas in seed the maximum activities of these enzymes were observed at the time of maximum seed filling stage (10-20 DAF). High activities of sucrose synthase at the time of rapid seed filling can be correlated to its sink strength. Higher activities of phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase in the branch of inflorescence and pod wall than in seed may indicate the involvement of the fruiting structure for recapturing respired CO2. High activities of isocitrate dehydrogenase and malic enzyme in the seed at the time of rapid seed filling could provide NADPH and carbon skeletons required for the synthesis of various seed reserves.
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623
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Sharma MC, Gupta AK, Verma N, Das VN, Saran R, Kar SK. Demonstration of Leishmania parasites in skin lesions of Indian post kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) cases. THE JOURNAL OF COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2000; 32:67-8. [PMID: 11129569] [Citation(s) in RCA: 0] [Impact Index Per Article: 0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [MESH Headings] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 02/18/2023]
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624
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Gupta AK, Rhotgi HK. Intradialytic complications in bicarbonate haemodialysis. THE JOURNAL OF THE ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICIANS OF INDIA 2000; 48:264. [PMID: 11229169] [Citation(s) in RCA: 0] [Impact Index Per Article: 0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [MESH Headings] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 02/19/2023]
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625
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Bajpai M, Nambhirajan L, Dave S, Gupta AK. Surgery in tuberculosis. Indian J Pediatr 2000; 67:S53-7. [PMID: 11129909] [Citation(s) in RCA: 0] [Impact Index Per Article: 0] [Reference Citation Analysis] [Abstract] [MESH Headings] [Journal Information] [Submit a Manuscript] [Subscribe] [Scholar Register] [Indexed: 02/18/2023]
Abstract
Tuberculosis in children involves many organs and systems including lymphatics, lungs, CNS, GIT and genitourinary. Although the mainstay of treatment is medical, surgery has a definite role under specific circumstances. It is important to differentiate atypical mycobacterial infection wherein surgery is the primary modality of treatment. The lung is most commonly involved in tuberculosis and besides bronchoscopy, thoracic procedures range from tube thoracostomy to decortication and lung resection. Neurotuberculosis constitutes almost half the cases of extrapulmonary tuberculosis and tuberculous meningitis (TBM) is the commonest type of CNS involvement. Hydrocephalus is a late complication of TBM and shunt surgery is indicated when signs and symptoms of raised intracranial pressure persist despite adequate medical therapy. Abdominal tuberculosis could be peritoneal or gastrointestinal. Either form can complicate the other and each can present in acute, subacute or chronic form. Surgical therapy is reserved for complications like strictures, fistulae and GI bleed. Genitourinary tuberculosis constitutes 15-20% of all extrapulmonary disease and epididymitis is the most common manifestation in the males. Surgery is generally reserved for management of complications such as ureteral strictures, perinephric abscesses and nonfunctioning kidneys.
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