Eicosanoids are produced by microglia, not by astrocytes, in rat glial cell cultures

To determine principal sources of eicosanoid production in glial cells, we analyzed the metabolites of arachidonic acid in cultured rat glial cells by use of reversed-phase, high-performance liquid chromatography and an on-line radioisotope detector. Prostaglandin D2, leukotriene B4, leukotriene C4, and 5-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid were present in cultures in which microglia appeared on a monolayer astrocytes. None were detected in culture dishes that contained only astrocytes, although astrocytes have been believed to be a main source of eicosanoid production in brain.

Dermoid cyst of the frontal bone away from the anterior fontanel

A case with a midline dermoid cyst of the frontal bone away from the anterior fontanel is reported. Although a few such cases have been reported, detailed descriptions are not given. Possible intracranial extension of these lesions is discussed with review of the pertinent literature.

The chromosomal location of the mouse mammary tumor gene Int6 and related pseudogenes in the mouse genome

The Int6 gene is a common insertion site for the mouse mammary tumor virus (MMTV) in mouse mammary tumors. We have determined that this gene is located centromeric of the Myc protooncogene on mouse chromosome 15. In the mouse genome there are several other Int6-reactive restriction fragments that are located on mouse chromosomes 6, 11, 14, 17, and 18. Nucleotide sequence analysis of four of six of these additional Int6 fragments showed that they contain processed Int6 pseudogenes. Comparisons between the Int6 genes of the inbred mouse laboratory strains and the wild mouse species Mus spretus and Mus mus musculus indicate that some pseudogenes were present before divergence of these species and others were acquired since their separation.

Cyclosporin A inhibits leukotriene production in intact RBL-1 cells without inhibiting leukotriene biosynthetic enzymes

The effects of cyclosporin A (CSA) on arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism were investigated in intact rat basophilic leukemia-1 (RBL-1) cells and cell lysates. Calcium ionophore (A23187)-stimulated synthesis of cysteinyl leukotrienes (LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4), LTB4, and 5-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (5-HETE) in intact cells in the absence or presence of CSA was measured by reversed-phase high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC). CSA inhibited the production of cysteinyl LTs, LTB4, and 5-HETE in intact cells in a dose-dependent manner. The synthesis of cysteinyl LTs, LTB4, and 5-HETE was also measured after the incubation of cell lysates with free AA in the absence or presence of CSA. CSA did not inhibit synthesis of cysteinyl LTs, but rather stimulated production of LTB4 and 5-HETE in cell lysate. A23187-stimulated release of incorporated [3H]AA from intact cells was not inhibited by CSA. CSA did not inhibit the synthesis of cysteinyl LTs and LTB4 when cells incubated with LTA4 as the substrate. These results indicate that the inhibitory effects of CSA on the synthesis of LTs and 5-HETE in intact cells are attributable to a modulatory action on a step in the series of intracellular events that includes the activation of 5-lipoxygenase, which are initiated by Ca2+ influx and end in the release of metabolites from the cell membrane, rather than to a direct inhibitory action on enzymes in the LT biosynthetic pathway.

IL-3 and IL-5 enhance the production of LTB4 stimulated by calcium ionophore in rat basophilic leukemia cells

To determine the regulatory mechanism of Leukotriene (LT) B4 synthesis by cytokines, we investigated the regulation of LTB4 generation by short-term (30 min) priming and long-term (15 h) enzyme-inducing actions of the four cytokines interleukin (IL)-3, IL-5, tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha), and transforming growth factor alpha (TGF-alpha) in rat basophilic leukemia-1 (RBL-1) cells. Pretreatment of cells with IL-3 or IL-5 for 30 min increased A23187- (5x10(-9)M) stimulated synthesis of LTB4 by three to four times over control levels. However, IL-3 or IL-5 lacked this effect when stimulated with exogenous arachidonic acid A at 10(-4)M. TNF-alpha and TGF-alpha had no priming effect on LTB4 synthesis following stimulation with either A23187 (5x10(-9)M) or AA(10(-4)M). Stimulation with the calcium ionophore (A23187)(10(-5)M) or AA(10(-4)M) following 15-h exposure to these cytokines had no effect. These results suggest that IL-3 and IL-5 increase the production of LTB4 by priming the activity of phospholipase A2(PLA2) without inducing enzymes in the arachidonate 5-lipoxygenase pathway. Such a priming effect may be important in regulating the development of allergic and other diseases involving the inflammatory reaction.

Percutaneous absorption of indomethacin from pluronic F127 gels in rats

Thermally reversible gels of the poly(oxyethylene)-poly (oxypropylene)-(polyoxyethylene) triblock copolymer, Pluronic F127, were evaluated as vehicles for the percutaneous administration of drugs using indomethacin as a model drug. In-vivo percutaneous absorption studies using a rat model suggest that a 20% w/w aqueous gel of Pluronic F127 may be of practical use as a base for topical administration of the drug. The addition of isopropyl myristate or (+)-limonene to the gel formulation significantly improved percutaneous absorption, particularly when the gel was applied using an occlusive dressing technique.

In vitro and in vivo antibacterial activities of BO-2727, a new carbapenem

BO-2727, a new injectable carbapenem, was evaluated for its in vitro and in vivo antibacterial activities in comparison with those of biapenem, meropenem, imipenem, cefpirome, and ceftazidime. BO-2727 had activity comparable to that of imipenem against methicillin-susceptible staphylococci and streptococci, with MICs at which 90% of strains tested (MIC90s) are inhibited being equal to 0.5 microgram/ml or less. Against methicillin-resistant staphylococci, BO-2727 was the most active among the antibiotics tested, with MIC90s ranging from 4 to 8 micrograms/ml. BO-2727 was highly active against members of the family Enterobacteriaceae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, with MIC90s ranging from 0.006 to 2 micrograms/ml. BO-2727 was also highly active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa (imipenem-susceptible strains), for which the MIC90 was 2 micrograms/ml, which was lower than those of imipenem, cefpirome, and ceftazidime and comparable to those of biapenem and meropenem. Differences in activity between BO-2727 and the other carbapenems against imipenem-resistant P. aeruginosa were particularly striking (MIC90, 8 micrograms/ml). Furthermore, BO-2727 displayed a high degree of activity against many of the ceftazidime-, ciprofloxacin-, and/or gentamicin-resistant isolates of P. aeruginosa. The in vivo efficacy of BO-2727 against experimental septicemia caused by gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, including methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and imipenem-resistant P. aeruginosa, reflected its potent in vitro activity and high levels in plasma.

[The uptake of nalidixic acid and enoxacin by rat renal cortical slices in rat]

The mechanisms involved in the renal excretion of quinolone and new quinolone antibacterial drugs are still incompletely understood. The purpose of this study was to examine the renal handling of nalidixic acid (NA) and enoxacin (ENX), using the renal cortical slices uptake techniques in rats. It was demonstrated that both NA and ENX were taken against a concentration gradient by a saturable processes resulting from the ratio of slice to medium (ratio of S/M) being dependent on the time and the concentration. It was indicated that the inhibition of uptake by 2,4-dinitrophenol, ouabain and sodium cyanate was shown to be an energy dependence. Probenecid and cimetidine exhibited that they might inhibit NA uptake slightly. ENX uptake was inhibited by probenecid, cimetidine, guanidine and disopyramide, suggesting that ENX might possess an affinity for both anionic and cationic transport mechanisms.

Serum cardiac troponin T in patients with acute myocardial infarction. Detection of coronary reperfusion and prediction of cardiac function

Serum troponin T, a myocardial contractile protein, has been reported to be a sensitive marker for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. However, there have been few reports on its ability to detect coronary reperfusion and to predict left ventricular function in the chronic stage. Twenty two patients (20 males and 2 females, 61 +/- 10 y.o.) with acute myocardial infarction were enrolled in this study. They were divided into 2 groups, one with successful reperfusion (group A: n = 13) and one without reperfusion (Group B: n = 9) and the serial changes of their serum troponin T levels were evaluated. Serum myosin light chain was measured in another group of patients with acute myocardial infarction without history of old myocardial infarction (group C: n = 8). The slope of the logarithm of serum troponin T on a time-value curve was calculated from the time of admission to the first peak within 24 hours of the onset of acute myocardial infarction. The correlation coefficient between the late peak of serum troponin T and the left ventricular ejection fraction in 11 patients with first Q wave acute myocardial infarction was compared with that between the serum myosin light chain peak and the left ventricular ejection fraction in group C. 1) The slope of the logarithm of serum troponin T on the time-value curve in group A was greater than that in group B (0.57 +/- 0.45 vs. 0.22 +/- 0.16) (p < 0.05). 2) There was a good correlation between the late peak level of serum troponin T (78 +/- 10 hours after the onset) and the left ventricular ejection fraction in 11 patients with first Q wave acute myocardial infarction (r = -0.84, p < 0.01), which was similar to that of the serum myosin light chain peak and the left ventricular ejection fraction (r = -0.72, p < 0.05). On the other hand, there was no correlation between the peak level of serum creatine phosphokinase and the left ventricular ejection fraction (r = -0.55, NS). The serum troponin T levels 24, 36, 48 and 60 hours after the onset also correlated well with the left ventricular ejection fraction (r = -0.65, -0.7, -0.65 and -0.89, respectively). We conclude that the serial measurement of serum troponin T in patients with acute myocardial infarction is useful in the evaluation of left ventricular function in the chronic stage and that it is a potential non-invasive predictor of coronary reperfusion.

Neuroblastoma in infants aged less than 6 months: is more aggressive treatment necessary? A report from the Pediatric Oncology Study Group of the Kyushu area

Infants with neuroblastoma are known to have a better prognosis than older children. In Japan in 1985, mass screening for neuroblastoma in infants aged 6 months was introduced. With this policy, there has been an increase in the number of patients seen with neuroblastoma between 6 and 11 months of age. In a previous report the authors described the management and prognosis of infants with disease detected by mass screening, but there is still little information regarding the strategies of management for infants with neuroblastoma aged less than 6 months. The authors analyzed the data regarding 27 patients aged less than 6 months registered in their region (population 15 million) from 1985 to 1992, and compared it with that of the previous 8-year period. In the younger age group, there was a significantly higher rate of advanced disease stages (III and IV). In spite of the variation in treatment related to the choice of individual institutions, infants with stages I, II, and III disease had a good outcome, suggesting that aggressive chemotherapy is not necessary unless poor prognostic factors are present. One patient with stage IV disease died of disseminated disease and one with stage IVs and 22 copies of N-myc oncogene also died of tumor relapse in spite of aggressive chemotherapy. It is therefore concluded that the prognosis in infants with stage IV and IVs neuroblastoma under the age of 6 months is not as good as had previously been believed, and that such patients, therefore, require special consideration.

A handy database for culture collections worldwide: CCINFO-PC

Culture collections are reservoirs of cultivable microbes, cell lines and gene libraries. Their role and duty are to supply biological resources to biomedical communities; nevertheless, their visibility from the public is low because most culture collections still have poor accesses via the Internet. Therefore the WFCC World Data Center on Micro-organisms (WDCM) developed a database that runs on IBM PCs and compatibles, which are the most popular computer and will be as powerful as workstations. The database includes various information: activities of 484 culture collections from 58 countries; an integrated list of their holdings of bacteria, fungi and yeast; and data entry system for culture collections.

Inositol trisphosphate receptor mediated spatiotemporal calcium signalling

Spatiotemporal Ca2+ signalling in the cytoplasm is currently understood as an excitation phenomenon by analogy with electrical excitation in the plasma membrane. In many cell types, Ca2+ waves and Ca2+ oscillations are mediated by inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) receptor/Ca2+ channels in the endoplasmic reticulum membrane, with positive feedback between cytosolic Ca2+ and IP3-induced Ca2+ release creating a regenerative process. Remarkable advances have been made in the past year in the analysis of subcellular Ca2+ microdomains using confocal microscopy and of Ca2+ influx pathways that are functionally coupled to IP3-induced Ca2+ release. Ca2+ signals can be conveyed into the nucleus and mitochondria. Ca2+ entry from outside the cell allows repetitive Ca2+ release by providing Ca2+ to refill the endoplasmic reticulum stores, thus giving rise to frequency-encoded Ca2+ signals.

Identification of macrophage colony-stimulating factor in human milk and mammary gland epithelial cells

Human milk contains cellular and soluble host-protective components. Macrophages in human milk constitute a major cellular component in contrast to those in the peripheral blood. We have investigated a mechanism of local expansion of macrophages in human milk. First, biologically active macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF) was identified in human milk. The maximal concentrations of M-CSF in human milk were 10- to 100-fold higher than those in the serum. The concentrations of M-CSF in the milk had no correlation with those in the serum. M-CSF was immunohistochemically detected in the epithelial cells of the ducts and alveoli of the mammary gland. In situ hybridization study confirmed the local synthesis of M-CSF in the mammary gland epithelial cells. A possible role of female sex steroids was discussed in the regulation of M-CSF production by mammary gland epithelial cells.

[Assessment of anxiolytics (2)--An elevated plus-maze test]

When rodents are placed on an elevated plus-maze which consisted of two enclosed arms and two open arms, they enter the enclosed arms more frequently and spend more time on the enclosed arms than on the open arms since they prefer the enclosed arms to the open arms. The elevated plus-maze test can measure effects of drugs based on this tendency of rodents. Anxiolytics increase the time spent on the open arms and number of entries into open arms, and anxiogenics decrease them. We investigated the basal behavior of mice and the effects of diazepam in the elevated plus-maze test using 4 mazes with different size. The basal behavior of mice were changed by the maze size, especially by the width of the open arms. Further, we suggested that the maze size might affect anxiolytic activity of drugs detected in this test. This test is very useful because it needs neither complicated training for rodents nor an expensive apparatus, and the anxiolytic effects of drugs can be easily measured. However, this test is difficult to detect putative anxiolytics acting on serotonin receptors. When this method is used for measuring the activity of drugs, the choice of experimental conditions and evaluation of the results should be carefully done.

[Treatment results of acute nonlymphocytic leukemia in childhood--Kyushu Yamaguchi Children's Cancer Study Group]

Seventy-three children with acute nonlymphocytic leukemia (ANLL) have been treated with ANLL-85 and ANLL-88 protocol at Kyushu-Yamaguchi Children's Cancer Study Group between June, 1985 and February, 1993. Ten boys and 10 girls (0y4m-16ylm) were treated with the ANLL-85 protocol. The complete remission (CR) rate was 75% and the 5-year event free survival (EFS) was 20 +/- 9%. It was terminated because of frequent early relapse (within 6 months after CR). Thirty-four boys and 19 girls (0y3m-17ylm) were treated with the ANLL-88 protocol. The CR rate was 85% and the 5-year EFS was 32 +/- 7%. Early relapse rate with ANLL-88 was lower than that of ANLL-85, however 9 cases relapsed after terminating therapy. Although bone marrow transplantation (BMT) from related donors during the first CR was effective in ANLL-88, EFS was not improved. Recognition of risk factors and appropriate chemotherapy regimens with or without the support of stem cell transplantation may be necessary to cure children with ANLL.

Occurrence of acute megakaryoblastic leukemia in a patient with idiopathic growth hormone deficiency

We describe a case of a 15 year old boy who developed acute megakaryoblastic leukemia (AMKL) while receiving treatment with human growth hormone (hGH) for idiopathic growth hormone deficiency (GHD). He was diagnosed as having idiopathic GHD and given hGH from December 1991. The examination of his peripheral blood showed mild pancytopenia 2 months before the start of the hGH therapy. Since January 1992, paleness of the skin, general fatigue and fervescence progressed gradually. In February 1992, because of the occurrence of acute leukemia, administration of hGH was discontinued. Judging from the results of surface marker analysis of the blast cells, the patient was diagnosed as having AMKL. He was treated with chemotherapy for acute non-lymphoblastic leukemia from March 1992. A complete remission was obtained after 4 weeks of treatment. The chemotherapy was completed in July 1993. He remains in complete remission 26 months after diagnosis. This case suggests the importance of hematological examination and, when there is any abnormality which is not caused by GHD, such as pancytopenia, more detailed medical examinations (for example bone marrow examination) are necessary.

Gadolinium-enhanced magnetic resonance imaging in acute myocardial infarction

To investigate the clinical application of gadolinium diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (Gd-DTPA)-enhanced magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in the management of acute myocardial infarction (AMI), we examined 44 patients with AMI within 1 month after onset. Enhanced images were classified into 4 types: nontransmural (type 1), transmural and homogeneous (type 2), transmural and marginal (type 3), and no enhancement (type 4). Each enhancement pattern was correlated with angiographic and thallium-201 imaging results. The redistribution images of thallium were graded on a 4-point scale from 0 (normal) to 3 (markedly reduced or absent activity). The percentage of the perimeter affected by asynergy was obtained from the left ventriculogram. Peak creatine kinase and the percentage of asynergic perimeter were significantly higher in type 3 than in other type patients. End-diastolic volume index was significantly higher in type 3 than in type 2 patients. Left ventricular ejection fraction was lowest, and end-systolic volume index, thallium-201 score, and incidence of wall thinning on MRI were highest in type 3 patients. Therefore, the transmural and marginal enhancement pattern (type 3) was compatible with extensive myocardial infarction with infarct expansion and less viable myocardium. In the other types, the infarction was small to moderate in size and left ventricular function was well preserved. Thus, Gd-DTPA-enhanced MRI may be useful in the evaluation of left ventricular function and myocardial viability of the infarct region after AMI.

Angioscopic prediction of successful dilatation and of restenosis in percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty. Significance of yellow plaque

BACKGROUND

Coronary angiography has been used to assess the anatomy of coronary artery and intraluminal pathological changes. However, it has several limitations in its diagnostic quality and sensitivity in the detection of intraluminal details. Angioscopy has enabled coronary artery lumens to be visualized directly and fine intraluminal morphological changes to be detected. The information obtained by angioscopy is expected to provide new insights into the mechanisms and pathophysiology of transluminal coronary angioplasty.

METHODS AND RESULTS

Forty-seven patients (39 men and 8 women) with stable angina were enrolled in the present study. Angioscopy was performed before and after angioplasty with a 0.68-mm angioscope with a double-guiding catheter system. The patients who were successfully evaluated by angioscopy were divided into two groups according to the color of the lesion: group 1, mainly yellow; and group 2, white. Angiographic, angioscopic, and clinical parameters in the two groups were compared. Detailed angioscopic findings were obtained in 36 of the 47 patients (77%) before percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) and in 24 of the 47 (51%) after PTCA. Yellow plaque were found in 13 of 36 (36%). Age, sex, presence of coronary risk factors, serum cholesterol level, and duration of angina showed no correlation with plaque color. The incidence rates of dissection and thrombi after angioplasty also were not different. Successful dilatation was achieved in 13 of 13 patients (100%) in group 1 and in 21 of 23 (91%) in group 2. The restenosis rate of group 1 was significantly lower than that in group 2 (16.7% versus 57.9%, P < .05). Cox proportional hazards model revealed that plaque color was the independent variable associated with restenosis after PTCA (P = .03).

CONCLUSIONS

The restenosis rate after successful balloon angioplasty differs, with the color of the target lesion being significantly higher in patients with solely white plaque. Therefore, angioscopic findings are highly predictive of restenosis.

Int-6, a highly conserved, widely expressed gene, is mutated by mouse mammary tumor virus in mammary preneoplasia

With a unique mouse mammary tumor model system in which mouse mammary tumor virus (MMTV) insertional mutations can be detected during progression from preneoplasia to frank malignancy, including metastasis, we have discovered a new common integration site (designated Int-6) for MMTV in mouse mammary tumors. MMTV was integrated into Int-6 in a mammary hyperplastic outgrowth line, its tumors and metastases, and two independent mammary tumors arising in unrelated mice. The Int-6 gene is ubiquitously expressed as a 1.4-kb RNA species in adult tissues and is detected beginning at day 8 of embryonic development. The nucleotide sequence of Int-6 is unrelated to any of the known genes in the GenBank database. MMTV integrates within introns of the gene in the opposite transcriptional orientation. In each tumor tested, this results in the expression of a truncated Int-6/long terminal repeat (LTR) chimeric RNA species which is terminated at a cryptic termination signal in the MMTV LTR. Since the nonrearranged Int-6 alleles in these tumors contain no mutations, we favor the conclusion that truncation of the Int-6 gene product either biologically activates its function or represents a dominant-negative mutation.

Dimeric chemotactic peptides discriminate between chemotaxis and superoxide production of human neutrophils

A series of dimeric fMLPs were synthesized by cross-linking with hydrophilic linkers, mono-, di-, tri-, and tetraethylene glycols. All of the dimers showed higher activities than monomeric fMLP in chemotaxis assays for human neutrophils. The magnitude of the activity enhancement was dependent on the linker length. On the other hand, production of superoxide anion was not as enhanced as chemotaxis. The experimental results indicate that these dimers, especially the triethylene glycol-bridged fMLP dimer, D-fMLP-G3, are selective agonists for chemotaxis. In order to distinguish between biological activities and intracellular signaling, rapid mobilization of the intracellular calcium was also measured. D-fMLP-G3 strongly enhanced the calcium mobilization. These results suggest that chemotaxis was correlated with the increase of the intracellular calcium concentration, whereas NADPH oxidase was not activated to generate superoxide by this elevation of cytoplasmic calcium caused by the dimeric ligand, D-fMLP-G3. The dimeric fMLPs might act as useful ligands for studying the intracellular signaling mechanisms of human neutrophils.

The effects of anxiolytics and anxiogenics on evaluation of learning and memory in an elevated plus-maze test in mice

We examined the effects of anxiolytics and anxiogenics on evaluation of learning and memory in the elevated plus-maze test in mice. Transfer latency (TL), the time mice took to move from the open arm to the enclosed arm, was used as an index of learning and memory. The TL on day 2 was shorter than that on day 1 with the maze at a height of 40 cm, and was not affected by anxiolytics and anxiogenics such as 8-OH-DPAT (0.4 mg/kg), picrotoxin (2 mg/kg), and FG-7142 (20 mg/kg), but was affected by diazepam (8 mg/kg). On the other hand, the TL on day 2 was prolonged by changing the experimental room between day 1 and day 2. TL on day 1 and day 2. TL on day 2 was prolonged by treatment with scopolamine before the trial on day 1 compared with vehicle-treated groups. This scopolamine-induced prolongation of TL was reversed by pretreatment with physostigmine and piracetam. The TL on day 2 was also prolonged by treatment with cycloheximide or normobaric hypoxia initiated immediately after the trial on day 1. The cycloheximide- and hypoxia-induced prolongation of TL were reversed by pretreatment with piracetam. These results indicate that disruption of learning and memory and its amelioration, induced by the treatments described above, can be detected using the plus-maze test, suggesting that the elevated plus-maze test could be used for evaluation of learning and memory without influence of anxiolytics and anxiogenics.

Ameliorating effects of histidine on scopolamine-induced learning deficits using an elevated plus-maze test in mice

We investigated the effects of histidine on scopolamine-induced learning deficits in the elevated plus-maze test in mice. In this test, transfer latency (TL), the time mice took to move from the open arm to the enclosed arm, was used as an index of learning and memory. Intraperitoneal administration of scopolamine (0.5 mg/kg) prolonged the TL on day 2 compared with that in the saline-treated group. Histidine loading (500, 800 and 1600 mg/kg) reversed the prolongation of the TL induced by scopolamine. This ameliorating effect of histidine was abolished by alpha-fluoromethylhistidine, an inhibitor of histidine decarboxylase, suggesting that histidine itself has no such ameliorating effect. Moreover, the ameliorating effect of histidine was antagonized by a histamine H1 receptor antagonist, pyrilamine. However, zolantidine, a histamine H2 receptor antagonist, showed no antagonism of the effect of histidine. Thus, histamine, a decarboxylated product of histidine, elicited an ameliorating effect on scopolamine-induced learning deficit via histamine H1 receptors in mice. These findings clearly indicated that there is a close relationship between histaminergic and cholinergic systems in the brain, and that histamine may play certain important roles in learning and memory.

In vitro and in vivo antibacterial activities of Q-35, a novel fluoroquinolone

Q-35, a new fluoroquinolone, was evaluated for its in vitro and in vivo antibacterial activities. In vitro antibacterial activity against gram-positive bacteria was almost equal to that of sparfloxacin or tosufloxacin, but its activity against gram-negative bacteria was 2 times or more lower than that of other quinolones tested. In experimental septicemia, the in vivo activity of Q-35 reflected its in vitro antibacterial activity. In respiratory tract infections with Streptococcus pneumoniae TMS-3 in mice, Q-35 showed a therapeutic effect similar to sparfloxacin and tosufloxacin. Q-35 showed almost the same activity as that of ofloxacin in mice with pyelonephritic infection due to Escherichia coli TMS-3. The peak levels of Q-35 in murine serum, lungs and kidneys after a single oral administration were intermediate compared to those of tested quinolones.

Inhibition of leukotriene production by FK506 in rat basophilic leukemia-1 cells

We investigated the inhibitory action of FK506 (0.0005-5 micrograms/ml) on the metabolism of arachidonate 5-lipoxygenase in rat basophilic leukemia-1 cells. Cells were stimulated with A23187 (10(-5) mol/l) for 15 min in the absence or presence of various concentrations of FK506. Arachidonate 5-lipoxygenase metabolites, peptide leukotrienes (LTs), leukotriene B4 (LTB4) and 5-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (5-HETE) were measured by high-performance liquid chromatography. FK506 inhibited A23187-stimulated production of peptide LTs, LTB4 and 5-HETE in intact cells by up to 77, 73 and 60%, respectively. Phospholipase A2 activity, measured by the release of 3H-arachidonic acid (AA), was not significantly inhibited by FK506. The synthesis of peptide LTs and LTB4 was not inhibited by FK506 when leukotriene A4-free acid was added to the culture medium. The synthesis of peptide LTs, LTB4 and 5-HETE was not affected by FK506 in a cell lysate study using AA as the substrate. These results indicate that FK506 inhibits the production of peptide LTs, LTB4 and 5-HETE by inhibiting 5-lipoxygenase activity in intact cells. The inhibition is not a direct action on 5-lipoxygenase but results from the activating processes of this enzyme.

Function of the sphincter of Oddi in patients with juxtapapillary duodenal diverticula: evaluation by intraoperative biliary manometry under a duodenal pressure load

The purpose of this study was to elucidate the function of the sphincter of Oddi (SO) in patients with juxtapapillary duodenal diverticula (JDDs). The SO function was evaluated by intraoperative biliary manometry in three groups of patients. Group 1 consisted of nine patients with JDDs and a dilated common bile duct (CBD) (diameter > 10 mm). Group 2 consisted of six patients with JDDs and a normal-sized CBD (diameter < 10 mm). Group 3 consisted of 26 patients without JDDs and with normal-sized CBDs. In the absence of a duodenal pressure load, the patients in group 1 demonstrated a lower baseline SO pressure and lower resistance of the biliary outflow than patients in group 3. They also demonstrated a lower baseline SO pressure and shorter decay time (which represented terminal biliary ductal resistance) than patients in group 2. In the presence of a duodenal pressure load of 300 mm H2O, the patients in group 1 demonstrated a lower incidence of phasic SO contractions, a higher baseline SO pressure, and a higher resistance of the biliary outflow than group 2 and group 3 patients. The decay time in group 1 and group 2 patients was higher than that of group 3 patients. Based on these findings, we conclude that the SO function in patients with JDDs is impaired owing in part to long-standing compression of the terminal biliary ductal system by a distended JDD associated with a rise in intraduodenal pressure in daily life.