Distinct angiogenic and non-angiogenic growth patterns of lung metastases from renal cell carcinoma

AIMS

We have recently evaluated a classification of non-small-cell lung cancer based upon the presence of an angiogenic or a non-angiogenic growth pattern. The aim of the present study was to test the hypothesis that lung metastases of clear cell renal cell carcinoma (RCC) can grow without eliciting angiogenesis and give rise to the same set of growth patterns.

METHODS AND RESULTS

Tissue sections of 24 patients with lung metastases from clear cell RCC were analysed. Haematoxylin and eosin and reticulin staining were performed to evaluate growth pattern. Double-labelling with antibodies to CD34 and proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA) was performed to determine the endothelial cell proliferation fraction (ECPF) and the microvessel density (MVD). Three growth patterns were observed. In the destructive growth pattern (54%), the architecture of the lung was not preserved. In the alveolar (33%) and interstitial growth patterns (13%), the normal lung parenchyma was preserved within the metastases. MVD was higher in the destructive than in the alveolar growth pattern (P = 0.009). ECPF was higher in the destructive (mean 31.1 +/- 22.7%, median 30.0) than in the alveolar growth pattern (mean 3.6 +/- 2.8%, median 3.2; P = 0.005).

CONCLUSIONS

The present study demonstrates that highly angiogenic primary tumours can give rise to non-angiogenic metastases. This type of metastasis may be resistant to antiangiogenic therapy.

Decision making about operability in non-small cell lung cancer

With the introduction of combined modality therapy and better staging techniques, the role of surgical resection for non-small cell lung cancer is continuously redefined. The final aim of surgical treatment for lung cancer is complete resection, also after neoadjuvant or induction therapy. Precise criteria for complete resection have recently been defined. Definite indications for surgery include clinical stages I, II and resectable IIIA. The precise role for surgical resection in stage IIIA-N2 lung cancer remains controversial but only downstaged patients should be considered. Stage IIIB is mostly treated by chemoradiotherapy. Accurate peroperative or surgical staging is necessary, as well regarding the tumour as nodal factor, to determine the extent of resection. A systematic nodal dissection should be performed including at least three hilar and three mediastinal lymph node stations. Post-induction surgical therapy often represents a greater technical challenge due to a pronounced hilar and mediastinal fibrosis. Downstaging is an important prognostic factor and persisting mediastinal lymph node involvement carries a poor prognosis. The optimal restaging method has not been established yet, but a pathological proof should be obtained. Remediastinoscopy is feasible with an acceptable accuracy but less invasive techniques are currently evaluated.

Quality of life evolution after lung cancer surgery: A prospective study in 100 patients

OBJECTIVE

To evaluate quality of life (QoL) evolution after thoracic surgery for lung cancer with the European Organisation for Research and Treatment of Cancer (EORTC) QoL Questionnaire-C30 and the lung cancer specific module LC13.

METHODS

A prospective QoL registration started in 2002 for all patients undergoing major pulmonary surgery for malignant disease. Between January 2002 and November 2004, 100 patients were included. Questionnaires were administered pre-operatively and 1, 3, 6 and 12 months post-operatively (MPO) with response rates of 100%, 71%, 77%, 83% and 76%, respectively.

PROCEDURES

lobectomy 61%, pneumonectomy 17%, and wedge resection 22%. Approaches: anterolateral thoracotomy 79%, posterolateral thoracotomy 13% and video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) 8%.

RESULTS

Lobectomy and wedge resection are comparable in QoL evolution. Both resections are characterized by a 1 month temporary decrease in QoL functioning scores and an increase in pain symptoms. Lobectomy patients report an increase in dyspnea in the first month post-operatively, not seen after wedge resection. With exception of thoracic pain after lobectomy, QoL scores approximated baseline values 3MPO indicating good recovery. After pneumonectomy, there is no return to baseline in physical functioning, role functioning, pain, shoulder function and dyspnea in a 12 months follow-up period. Other QoL scores were comparable with baseline values. Pneumonectomy was significantly associated with a less favorable QoL score evolution when compared with lobectomy. Comparing antero- and posterolateral thoracotomy, significant differences in pain and dyspnea were seen in favor of the anterolateral technique. Comparing thoracotomy to VATS, significant differences were seen in physical functioning, QoL and thoracic pain in favor of VATS.

CONCLUSIONS

The present study documented QoL evolution profiles comparing pre-operative status with deficits and changes at 1, 3, 6 and 12 months after pulmonary surgery. Lung cancer surgery is well tolerated by the majority of patients. Lobectomy patients have a more favorable physical functioning and less thoracic pain, compared to pneumonectomy. Antero- and posterolateral thoracotomy are comparable for QoL evolution. After posterolateral thoracotomy more post-operative pain and dyspnea was seen. Post-operative physical functioning, pain and QoL are in favor of VATS.

ThePIP5K2AandRGS4genes are differentially associated with deficit and non-deficit schizophrenia

Several putative schizophrenia susceptibility genes have recently been reported, but it is not clear whether these genes are associated with schizophrenia in general or with specific disease subtypes. In a previous study, we found an association of the neuregulin 1 (NRG1) gene with non-deficit schizophrenia only. We now report an association study of four schizophrenia candidate genes in patients with and without deficit schizophrenia, which is characterized by severe and enduring negative symptoms. Single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) were genotyped in the DTNBP1 (dysbindin), G72/G30 and RGS4 genes, and the relatively unknown PIP5K2A gene, which is located in a region of linkage with both schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. The sample consisted of 273 Dutch schizophrenia patients, 146 of whom were diagnosed with deficit schizophrenia and 580 controls. The strongest evidence for association was found for the A-allele of SNP rs10828317 in the PIP5K2A gene, which was associated with both clinical subtypes (P = 0.0004 in the entire group; non-deficit P = 0.016, deficit P = 0.002). Interestingly, this SNP leads to a change in protein composition. In RGS4, the G-allele of the previously reported SNP RGS4-1 (single and as part of haplotypes with SNP RGS4-18) was associated with non-deficit schizophrenia (P = 0.03) but not with deficit schizophrenia (P = 0.79). SNPs in the DTNBP1 and G72/G30 genes were not significantly associated in any group. In conclusion, our data provide further evidence that specific genes may be involved in different schizophrenia subtypes and suggest that the PIP5K2A gene deserves further study as a general susceptibility gene for schizophrenia.

Guidelines on the standards for the training of specialised health professionals dealing with breast cancer

According to EUSOMA position paper 'The requirements of a specialist breast unit', each breast unit should have a core team made up of health professionals who have undergone specialist training in breast cancer. In this paper, on behalf of EUSOMA, authors have identified the standards of training in breast cancer, to harmonise and foster breast care training in Europe. The aim of this paper is to contribute to the increase in the level of care in a breast unit, as the input of qualified health professionals increases the quality of breast cancer patient care.

Cloning, sequencing and expression of white rhinoceros (Ceratotherium simum) interferon-gamma (IFN-γ) and the production of rhinoceros IFN-γ specific antibodies

Bovine tuberculosis (BTB) is endemic in African buffalo (Syncerus caffer) in the Kruger National Park (KNP). In addition to buffalo, Mycobacterium bovis has been found in at least 14 other mammalian species in South Africa, including kudu (Tragelaphus strepsiceros), Chacma baboon (Papio ursinus) and lion (Panthera leo). This has raised concern about the spillover into other potentially susceptible species like rhinoceros, thus jeopardising breeding and relocation projects aiming at the conservation of biodiversity. Hence, procedures to screen for and diagnose BTB in black rhinoceros (Diceros bicornis) and white rhinoceros (Ceratotherium simum) need to be in place. The Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) assay is used as a routine diagnostic tool to determine infection of cattle and recently African buffalo, with M. bovis and other mycobacteria. The aim of the present work was to develop reagents to set up a rhinoceros IFN-gamma (RhIFN-gamma) assay. The white rhinoceros IFN-gamma gene was cloned, sequenced and expressed as a mature protein. Amino acid (aa) sequence analysis revealed that RhIFN-gamma shares a homology of 90% with equine IFN-gamma. Monoclonal antibodies, as well as polyclonal chicken antibodies (Yolk Immunoglobulin-IgY) with specificity for recombinant RhIFN-gamma were produced. Using the monoclonals as capture antibodies and the polyclonal IgY for detection, it was shown that recombinant as well as native white rhinoceros IFN-gamma was recognised. This preliminary IFN-gamma enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), has the potential to be developed into a diagnostic assay for M. bovis infection in rhinoceros.

Hexamerization of the Bacteriophage T4 Capsid Protein gp23 and Its W13V Mutant Studied by Time-Resolved Tryptophan Fluorescence

The bacteriophage T4 capsid protein gp23 was studied using time-resolved and steady-state fluorescence of the intrinsic protein fluorophore tryptophan. In-vitro gp23 consists mostly of monomers at low temperature but forms hexamers at room temperature. To extend our knowledge of the structure and hexamerization characteristics of gp23, the temperature-dependent fluorescence properties of a tryptophan mutant (W13V) were compared to those of wild-type gp23. The W13V mutation is located in the N-terminal part of the protein, which is cleaved off after prohead formation in the live bacteriophage. Results show that W13 plays a role in the hexamerization process but is not needed to stabilize the hexamer once it is formed. Furthermore, besides the monomer-to-hexamer temperature transition (15-23 degrees C and 12-43 degrees C for wild-type and W13V gp23, respectively), we were able to observe denaturation of the N-terminus in hexameric wild-type gp23 around 40 degrees C. In addition, with the aid of a recently published homology model of gp23, the lifetimes obtained from time-resolved fluorescence measurements could tentatively be assigned to specific tryptophan residues.

Development of a matrix to evaluate the threat of biological agents used for bioterrorism

Adequate public health preparedness for bioterrorism includes the elaboration of an agreed list of biological and chemical agents that might be used in an attack or as threats of deliberate release. In the absence of counterterrorism intelligence information, public health authorities can also base their preparedness on the agents for which the national health structures would be most vulnerable. This article aims to describe a logical method and the characteristics of the variables to be brought in a weighing process to reach a priority list for preparedness. The European Union, in the aftermath of the anthrax events of October 2001 in the United States, set up a task force of experts from multiple member states to elaborate and implement a health security programme. One of the first tasks of this task force was to come up with a list of priority threats. The model, presented here, allows Web-based updates for newly identified agents and for the changes occurring in preventive measures for agents already listed. The same model also allows the identification of priority protection action areas.

Superior sulcus tumor arising in an azygos lobe

A non-small cell lung cancer presenting as a superior sulcus tumor in an azygos lobe has not yet been reported. We present such a case in a 69-year-old man undergoing complete resection after induction chemoradiotherapy and discuss the specific location of a superior sulcus tumor and the aberrant anatomy of an azygos lobe.

Heparan sulfate proteoglycan binding promotes APRIL-induced tumor cell proliferation

APRIL, a proliferation-inducing ligand, is a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) family that is expressed by various types of tumors and influences their growth in vitro and in vivo. Two receptors, transmembrane activator and cyclophilin ligand interactor (TACI) and B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA), bind APRIL, but neither is essential for the tumor-promoting effects, suggesting that a third receptor exists. Here, we report that APRIL specifically binds to heparan sulfate proteoglycans (HSPG) on the surface of tumor cells. This binding is mediated by the heparin sulfate side chains and can be inhibited by heparin. Importantly, BCMA and HSPG do not compete, but can bind APRIL simultaneously, suggesting that different regions in APRIL are critical for either interaction. In agreement, mutation of three lysines in a putative heparin sulfate-binding motif, which is not part of the TNF fold, destroys interaction with HSPG, while binding to BCMA is unaffected. Finally, whereas interaction of APRIL with HSPG does not influence APRIL-induced proliferation of T cells, it is crucial for its tumor growth-promoting activities. We therefore conclude that either HSPG serve as a receptor for APRIL or that HSPG binding allows APRIL to interact with a receptor that promotes tumor growth.

Paravertebral schwannoma with high uptake of fluorodeoxyglucose on positron emission tomography

A paravertebral mass was discovered in a 27-year-old woman, while investigating a painful shoulder and arm. CT, MRI and fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) pointed in the direction of a benign mass, but positron emission tomography (PET) showed a high uptake of [(18)F]fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG), which was indicative of a malignant lesion. Pathological analysis of the thoracoscopically resected tumour gave us the final diagnosis of a benign schwannoma. This report demonstrates that a high uptake of FDG in a non-malignant mediastinal tumour is possible.

Video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) for primary spontaneous pneumothorax: how I do it ?

The precise management of primary spontaneous pneumothorax remains controversial due to the lack of large prospective randomized trials. This not only regards the indications for conservative or invasive treatment but also the precise technique for air evacuation and recurrence prevention. The technique of video-assisted thoracic surgery is described as it is performed in our centre for the treatment of primary spontaneous pneumothorax.

Bichat guidelines for the clinical management of smallpox and bioterrorism-related smallpox

Smallpox is a viral infection caused by the variola virus. It was declared eradicated worldwide by the Word Health Organization in 1980 following a smallpox eradication campaign. Smallpox is seen as one of the viruses most likely to be used as a biological weapon. The variola virus exists legitimately in only two laboratories in the world. Any new case of smallpox would have to be the result of human accidental or deliberate release. The aerosol infectivity, high mortality, and stability of the variola virus make it a potential and dangerous threat in biological warfare. Early detection and diagnosis are important to limit the spread of the disease. Patients with smallpox must be isolated and managed, if possible, in a negative-pressure room until death or until all scabs have been shed. There is no established antiviral treatment for smallpox. The most effective prevention is vaccination before exposure.

Bichat guidelines for the clinical management of glanders and melioidosis and bioterrorism-related glanders and melioidosis

Glanders and melioidosis are two infectious diseases that are caused by Burkholderia mallei and Burkholderia pseudomallei respectively. Infection may be acquired through direct skin contact with contaminated soil or water. Ingestion of such contaminated water or dust is another way of contamination. Glanders and melioidosis have both been studied for weaponisation in several countries in the past. They produce similar clinical syndromes. The symptoms depend upon the route of infection but one form of the disease may progress to another, or the disease might run a chronic relapsing course. Four clinical forms are generally described: localised infection, pulmonary infection, septicaemia and chronic suppurative infections of the skin. All treatment recommendations should be adapted according to the susceptibility reports from any isolates obtained. Post-exposure prophylaxis with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is recommended in case of a biological attack. There is no vaccine available for humans.

Bichat guidelines for the clinical management of haemorrhagic fever viruses and bioterrorism-related haemorrhagic fever viruses

Haemorrhagic fever viruses (HFVs) are a diverse group of viruses that cause a clinical disease associated with fever and bleeding disorder. HFVs that are associated with a potential biological threat are Ebola and Marburg viruses (Filoviridae), Lassa fever and New World arenaviruses (Machupo, Junin, Guanarito and Sabia viruses) (Arenaviridae), Rift Valley fever (Bunyaviridae) and yellow fever, Omsk haemorrhagic fever, and Kyanasur Forest disease (Flaviviridae). In terms of biological warfare concerning dengue, Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever and Hantaviruses, there is not sufficient knowledge to include them as a major biological threat. Dengue virus is the only one of these that cannot be transmitted via aerosol. Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever and the agents of haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome appear difficult to weaponise. Ribavirin is recommended for the treatment and the prophylaxis of the arenaviruses and the bunyaviruses, but is not effective for the other families. All patients must be isolated and receive intensive supportive therapy.

Bichat guidelines for the clinical management of smallpox and bioterrorism-related smallpox

Smallpox is a viral infection caused by the variola virus. It was declared eradicated worldwide by the Word Health Organization in 1980 following a smallpox eradication campaign. Smallpox is seen as one of the viruses most likely to be used as a biological weapon. The variola virus exists legitimately in only two laboratories in the world. Any new case of smallpox would have to be the result of human accidental or deliberate release. The aerosol infectivity, high mortality, and stability of the variola virus make it a potential and dangerous threat in biological warfare. Early detection and diagnosis are important to limit the spread of the disease. Patients with smallpox must be isolated and managed, if possible, in a negative-pressure room until death or until all scabs have been shed. There is no established antiviral treatment for smallpox. The most effective prevention is vaccination before exposure.

Bichat guidelines for the clinical management of viral encephalitis and bioterrorism-related viral encephalitis

Most of the viruses involved in causing encephalitis are arthropod-borne viruses, with the exception of arenaviruses that are rodent-borne. Even if little information is available, there are indications that, most of these encephalitis-associated viruses could be used by aerosolisation during a bioterrorist attack. Viral transfer from blood to the CNS through the olfactory tract has been suggested. Another possible route of contamination is by vector-borne transmission such as infected mosquitoes or ticks. Alphaviruses are the most likely candidates for weaponisation. The clinical course of the diseases caused by these viruses is usually not specific, but differentiation is possible by using an adequate diagnostic tool. There is no effective drug therapy for the treatment of these diseases and treatment is mainly supportive, but vaccines protecting against some of these viruses do exist.

Bichat guidelines for the clinical management of Q fever and bioterrorism-related Q fever

Q fever is a zoonotic disease caused by Coxiella burnetii. Its interest as a potential biological weapon stems from the fact that an aerosol of very few organisms could infect humans. Another route of transmission of C. burnetii could be through adding it to the food supply. Nevertheless, C. burnetii is considered to be one of the less suitable candidate agents for use in a bioterrorist attack; the incubation is long, many infections are inapparent and the mortality is low. In the case of an intentional release of C. burnetii by a terrorist, clinical presentation would be similar to naturally occurring disease. It may be asymptomatic, acute, normally accompanied by pneumonia or hepatitis, or chronic, usually manifested as endocarditis. Most cases of acute Q fever are asymptomatic and resolve spontaneously without specific treatment. Nevertheless, treatment can shorten the duration of illness and decrease the risk of complications such as endocarditis. Post-exposure prophylaxis is recommended after the exposure in the case of a bioterrorist attack.

Bichat guidelines for the clinical management of plague and bioterrorism-related plague

Yersinia pestis appears to be a good candidate agent for a bioterrorist attack. The use of an aerosolised form of this agent could cause an explosive outbreak of primary plague pneumonia. The bacteria could be used also to infect the rodent population and then spread to humans. Most of the therapeutic guidelines suggest using gentamicin or streptomycin as first line therapy with ciprofloxacin as optional treatment. Persons who come in contact with patients with pneumonic plague should receive antibiotic prophylaxis with doxycycline or ciprofloxacin for 7 days. Prevention of human-to-human transmission via patients with plague pneumonia can be achieved by implementing standard isolation procedures until at least 4 days of antibiotic treatment have been administered. For the other clinical types of the disease, patients should be isolated for the first 48 hours after the initiation of treatment.

Bichat guidelines for the clinical management of brucellosis and bioterrorism-related brucellosis

Interest in Brucella species as a biological weapon stems from the fact that airborne transmission of the agent is possible. It is highly contagious and enters through mucous membranes such as the conjunctiva, oropharynx, respiratory tract and skin abrasions. It has been estimated that 10-100 organisms only are sufficient to constitute an infectious aerosol dose for humans. Signs and symptoms are similar in patients whatever the route of transmission and are mostly non-specific. Symptoms of patients infected by aerosol are indistinguishable from those of patients infected by other routes. Regimens containing doxycycline plus streptomycin or doxycycline plus rifampin are effective for most forms of brucellosis. Isolation of patients is not necessary. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and fluoroquinolones also have good results against Brucella, but are associated with high relapse rates when used as monotherapy. The combination of ofloxacin plus rifampicin is associated with good results. Even if there is little evidence to support its utility for post-exposure prophylaxis, doxycycline plus rifampicin is recommended for 3 to 6 weeks.

Bichat guidelines for the clinical management of botulism and bioterrorism-related botulism

Botulism is a rare but serious paralytic illness caused by botulinum toxin, which is produced by the Clostridium botulinum. This toxin is the most poisonous substance known. It 100 000 times more toxic than sarin gas. Eating or breathing this toxin causes illness in humans. Four distinct clinical forms are described: foodborne, wound, infant and intestinal botulism. The fifth form, inhalational botulism, is caused by aerosolised botulinum toxin that could be used as a biological weapon. A deliberate release may also involve contamination of food or water supplies with toxin or C. botulinum bacteria. By inhalation, the dose that would kill 50% of exposed persons (LD50) is 0.003 microgrammes/kg of body weight. Patients with respiratory failure must be admitted to an intensive care unit and require long-term mechanical ventilation. Trivalent equine antitoxins (A,B,E) must be given to patients as soon as possible after clinical diagnosis. Heptavalent human antitoxins (A-G) are available in certain countries.

Bichat guidelines for the clinical management of tularaemia and bioterrorism-related tularaemia

Francisella tularensis is one of the most infectious pathogenic bacteria known, requiring inoculation or inhalation of as few as 10 organisms to initiate human infection. Inhalational tularaemia following intentional release of a virulent strain of F. tularensis would have great impact and cause high morbidity and mortality. Another route of contamination in a deliberate release could be contamination of water. Seven clinical forms, according to route of inoculation (skin, mucous membranes, gastrointestinal tract, eyes, respiratory tract), dose of the inoculum and virulence of the organism (types A or B) are identified. The pneumonic form of the disease is the most likely form of the disease should this bacterium be used as a bioterrorism agent. Streptomycin and gentamicin are currently considered the treatment of choice for tularemia. Quinolone is an effective alternative drug. No isolation measures for patients with pneumonia are necessary. Streptomycin, gentamicin, doxycycline or ciprofloxacin are recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis.

Bichat guidelines for the clinical management of anthrax and bioterrorism-related anthrax

The spore-forming Bacillus anthracis must be considered as one of the most serious potential biological weapons. The recent cases of anthrax caused by a deliberate release reported in 2001 in the United States point to the necessity of early recognition of this disease. Infection in humans most often involves the skin, and more rarely the lungs and the gastrointestinal tract. Inhalational anthrax is of particular interest for possible deliberate release: it is a life-threatening disease and early diagnosis and treatment can significantly decrease the mortality rate. Treatment consists of massive doses of antibiotics and supportive care. Isolation is not necessary. Antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin are recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis during 60 days.

Prognostic value of nonangiogenic and angiogenic growth patterns in non-small-cell lung cancer

An essential prerequisite of nonangiogenic growth appears to be the ability of the tumour to preserve the parenchymal structures of the host tissue. This morphological feature is visible on a routine tissue section. Based on this feature, we classified haematoxylin and eosin-stained tissue sections from 279 patients with non-small-cell lung cancer into three growth patterns: destructive (angiogenic; n=196), papillary (intermediate; n=38) and alveolar (nonangiogenic; n=45). A Cox multiple regression model was used to test the prognostic value of growth patterns together with other relevant clinicopathological factors. For overall survival, growth pattern (P=0.007), N-status (P=0.001), age (P=0.020) and type of operation (P=0.056) were independent prognostic factors. For disease-free survival, only growth pattern (P=0.007) and N-status (P<0.001) had an independent prognostic value. Alveolar (hazard ratio=1.825, 95% confidence interval=1.117–2.980, P=0.016) and papillary (hazard ratio=1.977, 95% confidence interval=1.169–3.345, P=0.011) growth patterns were independent predictors of poor prognosis. The proposed classification has an independent prognostic value for overall survival as well as for disease-free survival, providing a possible explanation for survival differences of patients in the same disease stage.