5' nuclease PCR assay to detect Yersinia pestis

The 5' nuclease PCR assay uses a fluorescently labeled oligonucleotide probe (TaqMan) to rapidly detect and quantitate DNA templates in clinical samples. We developed a 5' nuclease PCR assay targeting the plasminogen activator gene (pla) of Yersinia pestis. The assay is species specific, with a detection threshold of 2.1 x 10(5) copies of the pla target or 1.6 pg of total cell DNA. The assay detected Y. pestis in experimentally infected Xenopsylla cheopis fleas and in experimentally infected monkey blood and oropharyngeal swabs. The TaqMan assay is simple to perform and rapid and shows promise as a future field-adaptable technique.

Real-time microchip PCR for detecting single-base differences in viral and human DNA

This report describes real-time 5' nuclease PCR assays to rapidly distinguish single-base polymorphism using a battery-powered miniature analytical thermal cycling instrument (MATCI). Orthopoxviruses and the human complement component C6 gene served as targets to demonstrate the feasibility of using the MATCI for diagnosis of infectious diseases and genetic disorders. In the Orthopoxvirus assay, consensus Orthopoxvirus PCR primers were designed to amplify 266-281 base-pair (bp) segments of the hemagglutinin (HA) gene in camelpox, cowpox, monkeypox, and vaccinia viruses. A vaccinia virus-specific fluorogenic (TaqMan) probe was designed to detect a single-base (A/G) substitution within the HA gene. In the C6 gene assay, a 73-bp segment of the C6 gene was PCR-amplified from human genomic DNA, and TaqMan probes were used to detect a single-base (A/C) polymorphism in the second position of codon 98. The MATCI correctly identified the nucleotide differences in both viral DNA and human genomic DNA. In addition, using a rapid DNA preparation method, it was possible to achieve sample, preparation of human genomic DNA, DNA amplification, and real-time detection in less than 1 h.

A colorimetric PCR-enzyme immunoassay to identify hantaviruses

BACKGROUND

Hantaviruses cause two serious human diseases: hantavirus pulmonary syndrome and hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome. At least nine hantaviruses are known to be pathogenic for humans and numerous others, with unknown disease potential, have been detected in rodents. Assays to quickly identify specific hantaviruses would be useful both for clinical diagnosis and in risk assessment studies.

OBJECTIVES

The goal of our study was to develop and test a specific and sensitive PCR-based assay for identification and differentiation of hantaviruses.

STUDY DESIGN

We developed an assay that combined RNA-PCR amplification and colorimetric enzymatic detection to identify representative European, Asian, and north American hantaviruses. RNAs from 18 hantavirus strains of nine species were amplified in the presence of digoxigenin-dUTP by using a single pair of oligonucleotide primers and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) performed by using rTth DNA polymerase. Digoxigenin-labeled PCR products were hybridized in solution to virus type-specific biotinilated probes, captured onto streptavidin-coated microtiter plates and detected by horseradish peroxidase-labeled anti-digoxigenin antibodies and a chromogenic substrate.

RESULTS AND CONCLUSIONS

The assay correctly identified each homologous virus type tested. The detection limit of the assay was approximately 15 PFU or at least 50 copies of the viral genome. The assay is simple and strain-specific and is adaptable for automation, making it more practical than other available techniques for accurate and reliable diagnosis and typing of hantaviruses.

The potential of 5' nuclease PCR for detecting a single-base polymorphism in Orthopoxvirus

A fluorogenic 5' nuclease PCR assay was evaluated for its ability to specifically detect and differentiate DNA of two Orthopoxvirus species. A pair of consensus primers that target a DNA segment of the Orthopoxvirus haemagglutinin gene, and two oligonucleotide probes; each labelled with a different fluorescent reporter dye and the same quencher dye, were used in a single-tube assay. The assay is based on the 5'-->3' nuclease activity of AmpliTaq DNA polymerase that cleaves a fluorescein-labelled hybridized probe. Probe cleavage generates specific fluorescent signals whose intensity can be quantified by fluorometry. After evaluating the effects of various annealing temperatures and probe concentrations and normalizing the emission intensities of the reporter dyes, it was possible to detect and differentiate monkeypox and vaccinia virus DNAs on the basis of a single-base polymorphism. The sensitivity of the 5' nuclease PCR assay is comparable to the sensitivity of ethidium bromide-stained gels, but the assay provides higher specificity and virtually eliminates the need for laborious post-PCR processing.

Detection of Rift Valley fever virus in mosquitoes by RT-PCR

A reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) assay to detect Rift Valley fever (RVF) virus RNA in experimentally infected mosquitoes was developed. The specificity of the assay was evaluated with three other phleboviruses; sandfly fever Sicilian (Sabin), sandfly fever Naples (Sabin) and Punta Toro (MSP 3) viruses. The relative sensitivity of the assay, determined by using RVF virus RNA extracted from serial dilutions of virus culture, was approximately 50 plaque forming units. This sensitivity level was 100-fold higher when a nested PCR procedure was used. When the RT-PCR assay was used with coded samples of intrathoracically-infected and uninfected mosquito, the assay detected the virus in all infected mosquitoes. With this assay, it was possible to detect RVF virus RNA in a single infected mosquito in the background of 10, 25 or 50 uninfected mosquitoes.

Muscle actin gene from Aedes aegypti (Diptera:Culicidae)

A recombinant phagemid containing a 1,240-bp insert encoding an actin was isolated from a yellow fever mosquito, Aedes aegypti (L.), complementary DNA library. This insert (pBS-Act35) contained an open reading frame of 822 bp whose deduced amino acid sequence exhibited > 95% homology with the carboxyl terminal 274 amino acids of Drosophila melanogaster Meigen and silkworm, Bombyx mori (L.), actin genes. Reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction was used to clone and determine the sequence of the additional 306 nucleotides that comprise the 5' end of the gene. The coding nucleotide sequence of the whole gene (designated Aeact-1) exhibited between 81 and 89% homology with coding sequences of D. melanogaster and B. mori actin genes, and its deduced amino acid sequence exhibited > 95% homology with those genes. The highest similarity of Aeact-1 gene at the amino acid sequence level was with B. mori and D. melanogaster muscle actins. Southern blot analysis indicated that the Aedes genome contains at least 5 actin-related sequences.

Aflatoxin B1 in common Egyptian foods

Samples of common Egyptian foods (17 nuts and seeds, 10 spices, 31 herbs and medicinal plants, 12 dried vegetables, and 28 cereal grains) were collected from markets in Cairo and Giza. A portion of each sample was extracted with chloroform, and the concentrated extract was cleaned by passing through a silica gel column. Aflatoxin B1 was determined by reversed-phase liquid chromatography with UV detection. The highest prevalence of aflatoxin B1 was in nuts and seeds (82%), followed by spices (40%), herbs and medicinal plants (29%), dried vegetables (25%), and cereal grains (21%). The highest mean concentration of aflatoxin B1 was in herb and medicinal plants (49 ppb), followed by cereals (36 ppb), spices (25 ppb), nuts and seeds (24 ppb), and dried vegetables (20 ppb). Among nuts and seeds, the prevalence of aflatoxin B1 was highest (100%) in watermelon seeds, inshell peanuts, and unshelled peanuts. The lowest prevalence and concentrations were in hommos (garbanzo beans). The highest concentrations of aflatoxin B1 were detected in foods that had no potential for field contamination but required drying during processing and storage, such as pomegranate peel, watermelon seeds, and molokhia.

Venezuelan equine encephalitis in BALB/c mice: kinetic analysis of central nervous system infection following aerosol or subcutaneous inoculation

OBJECTIVE

To investigate the routes of entry of Venezuelan equine encephalitis (VEE) virus into the brain, we infected BALB/c mice with a virulent strain (V3000) by aerosol or subcutaneous inoculation.

METHODS

Immunohistochemistry and in situ hybridization methods were used to detect VEE virus in tissues taken at daily intervals postinfection.

RESULTS

In both groups, virus in the brain first appeared in olfactory regions. Aerosol exposure caused early massive infection of olfactory epithelium, which developed into bilaterally symmetrical infection of the olfactory nerves, olfactory bulbs, and lateral olfactory tracts by day 2 postinfection. After subcutaneous inoculation, VEE in the brain also appeared first in olfactory regions, but was not detected until day 3 postinfection. By day 4 postinfection, VEE viral infection had spread throughout the brain in both groups. Vascular endothelium and the choroid plexus remained uninfected during the entire study.

CONCLUSIONS

Our findings suggest that VEE virus, whether given by aerosol or subcutaneously, first enters the brain through the olfactory tract.

An immunological factor that affects Anopheles gambiae survival

High titers of antibodies against Anopheles gambiae midguts were produced in New Zealand rabbits to identify midgut targets for an antimosquito vaccine. The serum from one of 8 rabbits (designated R2B6) killed 71.6% (Abbott's adjusted % mortality) of An. gambiae within 7 days. Mosquitoes ingesting R2B6 serum were unable to absorb their blood meal nutrients, resulting in reduced oviposition and egg hatching rates. Anopheles stephensi and Anopheles arabiensis were also killed when ingesting R2B6 serum but Anopheles freeborni, Anopheles albimanus, and Aedes aegypti were not affected. The mosquitocidal factor was a relatively large molecule (> 100,000 MW) maintained at threshold levels in the sera and killing was complement independent. Mortality, however, was not IgG mediated, as determined by protein A-sepharose fractionation. This surprising finding confounds possibilities of using antibodies against whole mosquito midguts as a step in the development of antimosquito vaccines.

Delta virus versus HBsAg in chronic active hepatitis and their relation to clinical, laboratory, and morbidity findings in bilharzial and non-bilharzial patients

This work was done to study the effect of delta virus and HBV infection, as two aetiological factors on clinical presentation, biochemical liver functions and prognosis of chronic active hepatitis (CAH) in schistosomiasis infected and non-infected patients. 66.7% of the patients were carriers for HBsAg, among them 41.7% were infected with delta virus. It was evident that the clinical presentation of the patients with positive serological markers of HBV and HDV demonstrated advancing liver disease than in the other studied groups. Moreover, the biochemical liver profile was significantly affected when the triad of chronic HBV, delta virus and schistosomiasis infection was present. This could be related to the immunosuppression caused by schistosomal infection. Furthermore, mortality rate was significantly higher in schistosomiasis infected individuals.

Anti-Onchocerca volvulus immunoglobulin subclass response in children from Sierra Leone

The humoral immune responses of a paediatric population of 224 children, 2-15 years of age, residing in an onchocerciasis endemic area of Sierra Leone, were studied to gain information that may be useful in the serodiagnosis of prepatent and low-level infections with Onchocerca volvulus. The antigen-specific levels of IgG and IgG4 were determined and evaluated in the context of the parasitological status of the child. Over 87% of the microfilaria-negative children had significant levels of antigen-specific antibodies against O. volvulus, suggesting that a large percentage of this paediatric population were harbouring prepatent or low-level infections. Over 60% of the children in the group that had detectable numbers of microfilariae in skin snips had elevated levels of O. volvulus-specific IgG4. In contrast, only 23% of the microfilaria-negative children had detectable IgG4 responses. The results presented here indicate that measures of O. volvulus-specific IgG4 may be a useful indicator of the parasitological status of children during the very early stages of onchocerciasis.

Surface-associated antigens of Brugia malayi L2 and L3 parasites during vector-stage development

Surface and metabolic labeling procedures were used to characterize the composition and the time of expression of Brugia malayi L2 and L3 surface-associated molecules as the larvae develop within the mosquito vector. Larvae were harvested from mosquito tissues at 5 (early L2), 8 (late L2) and 11 (L3) days post-infection and labeled with 125I-Iodo-Gen. The results of one-dimensional analysis showed that there is a progressive increase in the complexity of peptides associated with the surface of developing larvae, culminating in the expression of 7 major labeled components on L3s. Both L2 and L3 parasites have surface-associated components of 42, 35, 33, 19 and 17 kDa. Between days 8 and 11 of development in the insect vector, Brugia malayi undergoes the L2 to L3 molt and acquires additional major immunogenic peptides of 40 and 22 kDa. Two-dimensional analyses of extracts from 125I-labeled L2s and L3s revealed that the major 35-, 33-, 19- and 17-kDa molecules are part of a peptide complex that forms a 'ladder' between 17 and 150 kDa. To gain information on the times during which the major surface-associated molecules are produced by the parasite, larvae were labeled with [35S]methionine either in situ as they developed within the mosquito or during culture after exiting the vector. For in situ labeling, [35S]methionine was introduced into the hemolymph of infected mosquitoes by micro-injection at days 2, 5 and 8 post-infection and the larvae were allowed to develop for an additional 3 days. The results of 1- and 2-dimensional analyses of [35S]methionine-labeled extracts from vector-stage or post-vector-stage larvae indicate that the molecules associated with the surface of B. malayi L3s are synthesized between day 5 and day 11 of development in the insect host. Immediately after the larvae exit the vector, the synthesis of the 40 and 22-kDa peptides is drastically reduced or terminated.

Antigen shedding from the surface of the infective stage larvae of Dirofilaria immitis

A qualitative and quantitative analysis was made of the release of surface-associated molecules from developing Dirofilaria immitis infective-stage larvae (L3). D. immitis L3s were labelled with 125I using an Iodogen catalysed reaction and either maintained in culture or placed in chambers that were implanted into Lewis rats. The larvae released 10-20% of the labelled material each day during the first 4 days of in vitro and in vivo development. The loss of surface-labelled peptides from developing larvae corresponded with an increase in the amount of trichloroacetic acid-precipitable radioactivity found in the culture medium. SDS-PAGE analysis of the labelled material showed that the same 35 and 6 kDa components found in larval extracts were shed into culture medium by the developing parasites. Metabolic labelling studies and experiments in which larvae were labelled after different times in culture indicated that, once released, the surface-associated molecules were not replaced, and that this net loss of surface peptides resulted in a reduction in the antigenic potential of the cuticular surface. Antibodies from both immunized rabbits and naturally infected dogs immunoprecipitated the 35 kDa component. In contrast, the 6 kDa molecule was not recognized by the antibodies in any of the sera tested. Shedding of surface peptides and reducing surface antigenicity may represent mechanisms by which D. immitis infective-stage larvae evade immune attack.

Dirofilaria immitis: studies on anti-microfilarial immunity in Lewis rats

The effect of vaccination on rates of microfilarial clearance using Dirofilaria immitis in male Lewis rats was examined. Animals were immunized with whole, dead microfilariae or a PBS extract of microfilariae in Freund's adjuvant. The immunized animals, as well as untreated and adjuvant controls, were challenged intravenously with 4 x 10(5) viable microfilariae (mf). The duration of microfilaremia was 15.5 days in rats vaccinated with whole mf, 17.7 days in those vaccinated with a PBS extract, 36.3 days for those vaccinated with adjuvant alone, and greater than 70 days for the untreated group. Analysis of the anti-microfilarial IgG response by ELISA and Western blots demonstrated that immunization induced significant amounts of antibody against high molecular weight peptides, particularly a peptide located at 105 kDa. Antibody levels in both groups of immunized animals continued to rise following challenge, reaching peak levels of 78-80 micrograms/ml on the day of microfilarial clearance. Decreasing microfilaremia following challenge was associated with an enhanced recognition of low molecular weight peptides.

Dirofilaria immitis: biochemical and immunological characterization of the surface antigens from adult parasites

The molecules associated with the surface of adult Dirofilaria immitis were identified and characterized employing IODO-GEN-mediated surface labeling methods. D. immitis female and male parasites were found to have a limited number of surface-associated proteins (17.5, 16, and 14.5 kDa) and glycoproteins (49 and 20 kDa) which were readily extracted from parasite homogenates in the absence of detergent. The major surface labeled proteins and glycoproteins were antigenic in rabbits, but appeared to elicit only a weak humoral response in dogs with patent dirofilariasis. In addition, a 10- to 6-kDa surface-associated glycolipid was identified which may form a coat on the outside of the parasite and play a role in immune evasion. In immunoprecipitation experiments, the glycolipid was not recognized by the antibodies from rabbits exposed to the glycolipid or by antibodies in the sera of patently infected animals. The glycolipid and the 14.5-kDa surface protein were selectively released by the adult parasite during in vitro culture.

Antibiotics and immunity: effects of antibiotics on mitogen responsiveness of lymphocytes and interleukin-2 production

The immunomodulating properties of antimicrobial drugs may have important implications in prescriptive practice. This is particularly so for patients whose immune system has been compromised. In this study, tetracycline, cephalothin, rifampicin, polymyxin B and nitrofurantoin reduced mitogen responsiveness of both B and T lymphocytes of mouse spleen cells and human peripheral blood lymphocytes in vitro in a dose-dependent fashion. Ampicillin, chloramphenicol, gentamicin, streptomycin and erythromycin had no effect. In the in vivo study none of the antibiotics affected mouse spleen cell transformation in response to mitogen. The addition of interleukin-2 (IL-2) did not prevent the effect of the antibiotics tested on human lymphocytes in vitro. Cephalothin, chloramphenicol and gentamicin decreased IL-2 production by mouse spleen cells in vitro.

Antibiotics and immunity: effects of antibiotics on natural killer, antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity and antibody production

We studied the effects of antibiotics on natural killer (NK), antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) and immunoglobulin production. When human peripheral blood lymphocytes were incubated overnight with the antibiotic before the assay, nitrofurantoin significantly reduced NK but not ADCC activity. Nitrofurantoin also suppressed both spontaneous and interferon-enhanced NK activities in a dose-dependent fashion. Though it did not affect spontaneous ADCC activity, nitrofurantoin suppressed interferon enhancement of ADCC. Chloramphenicol significantly decreased the number of plaque forming cells in mice. In addition to chloramphenicol, tetracycline, rifampicin, cephalothin, polymyxin B and nitrofurantoin reduced mitogen-induced polycloned immunoglobulin synthesis. Results of this study may have clinical relevance, especially in treating immunocompromised patients.