Time course of the size of the dark area in macular holes by scanning laser ophthalmoscopy

To investigate the time course of idiopathic macular hole development by scanning laser ophthalmoscopy (SLO), we examined 28 eyes of 25 patients with macular holes. Cases included four eyes with stage 1-B disease (foveal detachment), 3 with stage 2 (break at the fovea), 13 with stage 3 (full-thickness macular hole), and 8 with stage 4 (hole with pseudo-operculum, posterior vitreous detachment), according to Gass's classification. The diameter of the dark area around the macular holes was recorded by SLO using a helium-neon laser. We compared the percent difference of dark area recorded between initial findings and these after three months. The size of the dark area increased after three months in eyes with stages 1, 2, and 3 disease. The size of the dark area in stage 4 disease decreased after 3 months. In the stage before posterior vitreous detachment (PVD), the dark areas increased. Once PVD occurred, these areas decreased. These findings suggested that the time course of the dark area may be related to the development of PVD.

Intratumoral pyrimidine nucleoside phosphorylase (PyNPase) activity predicts a selective effect of adjuvant 5'-deoxy-5-fluorouridine (5'DFUR) on breast cancer

BACKGROUND

Pyrimidine nucleoside phosphorylase (PyNPase) is the enzyme that converts 5'-deoxy-5-fluorouracil (5'DFUR) to 5-fluorouracil (5FU). Its activity in cancer tissue may correlate with the selective antitumor activity of 5'DFUR in breast cancer.

METHODS

Two hundred and sixteen T2 breast cancer patients were treated consecutively with surgery followed by 5'DFUR (600 mg/body/day) + tamoxifen (20 mg/body/day) for 2 years. PyNPase activity in breast cancer tissue, determined by high-performance liquid chromatography, ranged from 4.2-626.0 micrograms FU/mg protein/hr (mean +/- SD, 203.5 +/- 122.4), and the examined patients were divided into two groups: group A (high PyNPase group), cases with the PyNPase activity equal to or more than the mean value of 203.5 micrograms FU/mg protein/hr, and group B (low PyNPase group), cases with activity less than the mean value.

RESULTS

Although there was no difference in relapse-free survival (RFS) between groups A and B, among node-positive patients (n = 83) those in group A tended to have a longer RFS. When divided into subgroups according to estrogen receptor (ER) status, among node-positive and ER-positive tumors (n = 49), the RFS was significantly better in group A than in group B (p < 0.05).

CONCLUSION

Intratumoral PyNPase activity might be of use as a predictor of the effect of adjuvant 5'DFUR on breast cancer.

Analysis of the retinal edema of full-thickness macular holes by scanning laser ophthalmoscopy and optical coherence tomography

The purpose of this study was to investigate the relationship between the dark area illuminated by scanning laser ophthalmoscopy (SLO) and cystic spaces around macular holes as shown by optical coherence tomography (OCT). SLO allows for two dimensional retinal examination, using short wave length (514 nm, argon) which is useful for the vitreoretinal surface and inner retina; red helium-neon laser (633 nm), which is capable of imaging deeper tissues; and infrared diode laser (780 nm), for choroidal examination. OCT is analogous to ultrasound except that optical rather than acoustic reflectivity is measured. OCT can produce the cross-sectional view of retina. Using SLO (helium-neon laser) and OCT, we examined 8 eyes with full-thickness macular holes. Eight normal eyes served as controls. Cystic spaces were in proportion to dark areas with statistical significance as shown by correlation analysis. Evaluation of the full-thickness macular holes by using both SLO and OCT is highly useful.

The basic diagnostic approaches used in robotic still-image telepathology

We investigated the basic diagnostic processes used in telepathology with our robotic still-image system, OLMICOS, by analysing the steps and patterns used in 20 consecutive tissue section diagnoses. Three basic approaches were recognized. One was magnifying a suspect finding in a low-powered microscopic image. This approach was used mostly for confirming or characterizing a tumour. The second approach was scanning over a low-powered image by magnifying square images to form a mesh. This was found to be useful to confirm the presence or absence of signs and was mostly used as the initial step in judging the surgical margin of malignant cases or diagnosing lesions. The third approach was a combination of these two and was used for delineating the surgical margin, confirming the absence of metastases or diagnosing difficult lesions. Recognition of these three basic diagnostic approaches is important in making a rapid and correct remote diagnosis.

[Optimal thoracic irradiation for stage IV lung cancer]

To investigate optimal thoracic irradiation (TI) for stage IV lung cancer, we retrospectively reviewed 150 patients. In all, 101 patients underwent radiotherapy for the primary lesion, and 130 had radiotherapy for metastasized sites. TI fields were basically divided into two groups; whole thoracic lesion irradiation (WTLI) and partial thoracic lesion irradiation (PTLI). Overall survival rates at 6 months, 1 year and 2 years were 58%, 27% and 11%, respectively, and MST was 7.1 months. There was no difference in survival according to histological type. On univariate analysis, the factors of good prognosis included good PS, free of bone metastasis, metastasis limited to a single organ, TI, chemotherapy, age (less than or equal to 75 years), and TN factors (T0-2 and N0-1). Multivariate analysis showed PS was the predominant factor. Among the patients treated with TI, survival rates of patients with PS 0-1 were superior to those of patients with PS 2-4. Radiation pneumonitis was more frequent in WTLI than in PTLI. The rates of thoracic failure death were 31.7% in patients treated with TI and 63.3% without TI. However, the size of the thoracic radiation field did not affect the rates of thoracic failure death. We concluded that TI for stage IV patients could reduce thoracic symptoms and increase the survival rate in the subgroup with good PS. Furthermore, we considered PTLI was worth while in the subgroup with poor PS.

Isolated periarteritis nodosa of the spermatic cord presenting as a scrotal mass: report of a case

We report a 57-year-old man who visited a local hospital because of a fist-sized swelling and pain in his right scrotum. Surgically resected tissue revealed necrotizing arteritis in a small spermatic artery. As systemic symptoms for angiitis were not present, this is thought to be the second case of isolated angiitis occurring in the spermatic cord.

An ACTH-producing pituitary carcinoma developing Cushing's disease

An autopsy case of an ACTH-producing pituitary carcinoma in a 59-year-old man who developed Cushing's disease is reported. The surgically removed pituitary tumor was diagnosed as chromophobe adenoma, however, pulmonary metastases appeared 2 years after the operation. Autopsy revealed a residual pituitary tumor in the sella turcica with systemic metastases to the lungs, liver, pulmonary lymph nodes, hypothalamus, dura mater, and the subarachnoid space of the midbrain and spinal cord. Immunohistochemistry revealed ACTH positivity in the tumor cells. Further immunohistochemical study showed positive high expression of Ki-67 in the tumor removed at surgery as well as in the autopsied tumor. Ki-67 labeling index provided valuable information about the invasive and proliferative potential compared to noninvasive benign pituitary adenoma.

Induction of Fas-mediated apoptosis in a human renal epithelial cell line by interferon-gamma: involvement of Fas-mediated apoptosis in acute renal rejection

To examine the role of the Fas ligand/Fas (FasL/Fas) system and apoptosis in renal allograft rejection, we analyzed FasL/Fas expression and apoptosis in 63 renal allograft biopsy specimens obtained from 56 renal transplant recipients in Tokyo, Japan. Sixteen biopsy specimens were diagnosed (Banff criteria) as acute rejection (AR), 17 as AR plus chronic rejection, 10 as borderline stages, and 20 as no rejection (NR). Immunohistochemically, Fas antigen was highly expressed in the renal tubular epithelium in tissues from patients with rejection. The mean number of Fas-positive tubular epithelium was significantly higher in biopsy specimens with AR than in those with NR, but FasL expression was highly expressed in infiltrating lymphocytes in the interstitium of allografts with cellular rejection. The mean number of FasL-positive infiltrating lymphocytes was significantly higher in specimens with AR than in those with NR or borderline stages. For detection of apoptotic cells, the specimens were subjected to terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase-mediated deoxyuridine triphosphate-biotin nick end-labeling, which showed that the mean number of tubular epithelial cells positive for this labeling was highest for the specimens with AR, the number being significantly higher than in those with AR plus chronic rejection or with NR. Thus, Fas expression on epithelial cells might actively trigger their apoptosis by the interaction between Fas and FasL. Studies of human normal renal-derived cell lines (RPTEC 2601 [epithelial] and NHMC 5155 [mesangial]) showed that both constitutively expressed Fas (but not FasL) mRNA. After pretreatment with interferon-gamma, Fas-induced apoptosis was observed in the RPTEC 2601 line, but without interferon-gamma pretreatment, anti-Fas-mediated apoptosis was not seen. Under identical conditions, the NHMC 5155 line was resistant to anti-Fas-mediated apoptosis regardless of interferon-gamma pretreatment. This suggested that AR might be associated with increased apoptosis in the renal tubular epithelial cells mediated by the Fas/FasL system.

[Comparison of crossing-over between 30-minute drip infusion vs 30-second injection of granisetron for nausea and vomitting with cisplatin]

Recently, Granisetron (KYT) was proved to have a strong effect for cisplatin (CDDP)-induced emesis. We compared the effect of KYT for CDDP-induced emesis between two different administration schedules. Forty micrograms/kg of KYT was administered either by 30-minute drip infusion with 100 ml of saline (Group A) or 30-second injection with 10 ml of saline (Group B). We investigated the therapeutic effect of KYT in both group A and Group B by the crossing-over method. After the patients who had a malignant tumor and were going to receive CDDP (over 50 mg/m2) in two courses were selected, KYT was administered by the method of Group A or Group B in a double-blind comparison. The clinical efficacy was at least "effective" in 70% (7/10) of Group A and Group B. The study treatment was considered "useful" in 80% (8/10) of Group A, 90% (9/10) of Group B, and "safe" in 100% of Group A and B. There was no difference between two groups in this respect. The results showed that the slow intravenous injection of KYT also has an excellent antiemetic effect on CDDP-induced emesis and a high degree of safety.

[High-dose chemotherapy with autologous peripheral blood stem cell transfusion in the treatment of advanced testis cancer]

Four patients with advanced testis cancer were treated by high-dose chemotherapy supporting by autologous peripheral blood stem cell transplantation. High-dose chemotherapy (carboplatin 250 mg/m2 or nedaplatin 200 mg/m2, etoposide 1,500 mg/m2, ifosphamide 7.5 g/m2 was given and peripheral blood stem cell transfusion was performed 72 hours after the last dose of chemotherapy. High-dose chemotherapy. was given followed by 1 or 2 cycles of pre high-dose therapy consisting of cisplatin 100 mg/m2 or carboplatin 500 mg/m2, etoposide 450 mg/m2, ifosphamide 6 g/m2. All 4 patients were evaluable. Three patients obtained a complete response and one showed a partial response. The partial responder was given RPLND. The RPLND specimen showed necrotic tissue.

[Multilocular chronic intracerebral hematoma due to metastatic brain tumor: a case report]

Chronic intracerebral hematoma is a fairly rare clinical entity. We report a case of a 76-year-old man who presented with left hemiparesis on admission. CT scan revealed a hematoma in the right basal ganglia. Under observation, the hyperdense lesion on CT scan changed to isodense 2 weeks after admission and then changed to low density 4 weeks after the first scan. These findings suggested hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage but, 3 months after admission, hemiparesis grew worse and the appearance of the lesion changed from low density to isodensity again. When the patient presented disturbance of consciousness, CT scan revealed a new hemorrhage from the capsule of the hematoma and the new hematoma markedly expanded 2 weeks later. The contents of the hematoma was old uncoagulated hematoma resembling chronic subdural hematoma and drainage was carried out under local anesthesia. The patient died because of respiratory failure and autopsy was performed. Histopathologically cancer cells were shown in the hematoma cavity and the capsule of the hematoma was composed of two layers: a collagenous layer on the inside and a granulation layer with neovascular system on the outside. As the neovascular system existed on the outside of the capsule, the rebleeding occurred outside the capsule and the second hematoma appeared beside the initial one. We suspected that the initial bleeding occurred in the tumor tissue and the rebleeding occurred in the granulation layer of the capsule.

[A case of metastasis to the seminal vesicle of renal cell carcinoma]

A case of metastasis to the seminal vesicle of renal cell carcinoma is reported. A 60-year-old man was referred to our department for evaluation of intermittent hematospermia and asymptomatic macrohematuria for about 2 years. He had a left radical nephrectomy for localized renal cell carcinoma 5 years ago. Panendscopy showed a little bleeding of posterior urethra, but there were no abnormal images of upper urinary tracts. Two years later he had asymptomatic macrohematuria again and panendscopy showed swelling and bleeding of verumontanum. Transurethral resection of verumontanum revealed clear cell carcinoma histopathologically and CT revealed seminal vesicle or prostate tumor, then total cystectomy was performed. Pathological examination indicated metastasis to siminal vesicle of renal cell ccarcinoma. There has been no report of metastasis to seminal vesicle of renal cell carcinoma in literature. This is the first case in the world.

Distribution and synthesis of apolipoprotein J in the atherosclerotic aorta

The distribution of apolipoprotein (apo) J during the development of atherosclerosis in the human aorta was evaluated by immununohistochemical observation, together with the other apolipoprotein A-I, A-II, B, C-III, and E. Although apoJ was never observed in the normal aorta (ie, without any intimal lesions or intimal thickening), it was distributed not only in the intima but also in the media of aortas with diffuse, intimal thickening or atherosclerotic lesions. Double immunostaining with antibodies for apoJ and alpha-smooth muscle actin revealed apoJ deposition in smooth muscle cells (SMCs) or the aortic stroma in the vicinity of SMCs. The extent of apoJ distribution in the aortic wall increased with the degree of atherosclerosis development. In addition, the distribution pattern of apoJ was very similar to that of apoA-I and E. In situ hybridization with human apoJ cDNA demonstrated intense signals in cells scattered within the subendothelial space and medial SMCs of the aorta with advanced atherosclerosis but not in those of the normal aorta without intimal thickening. Furthermore, reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction of the cultured human aortic SMCs revealed apoJ mRNA expression in these cells. The results indicate that apoJ in the aortic wall originates from not only apoJ circulated in the plasma but also apoJ produced by SMCs in the aortic wall. Considering the similarities of the distribution between apoJ and apo-A-I or E, we hypothesize that apoJ possibly has a protective role against human atherosclerosis by its involvement with cholesterol transport from the aortic wall to the liver.

Do intronic mutations affecting splicing of WT1 exon 9 cause Frasier syndrome?

The WT1 gene, one of the genes responsible for Wilms tumour, is thought to play a crucial role in the development of the kidneys and gonads. This gene encodes four protein isoforms resulting from two alternative splicing sites, one of which involves inclusion or exclusion of lysine, threonine, and serine (KTS) between the third and fourth zinc finger domains. WT1 is virtually always mutationally inactivated in patients with Denys-Drash syndrome. We analysed WT1 in eight patients who had been diagnosed as having this syndrome, and identified five previously unknown mutations affecting splicing donor sites of intron 9. These mutations affect alternative splicing. The isoforms retaining KTS are not produced. The clinical features of the patients with these intronic mutations were consistent with those of Frasier syndrome, characterised by a more slowly progressive nephropathy than Denys-Drash syndrome, associated streak gonads, and no Wilms tumour development. Our results indicate that WT1 isoforms, including/excluding KTS, have different functions in tumorigenesis and organogenesis of the kidneys and gonads.

[Clinical efficacy of GG032X tablets, a new dosage form of ondansetron (fast dispersing tablet), on cisplatin-induced nausea and emesis]

The inhibitory effects of GG032X tablets, a new dosage form (fast dispersing tablet) of ondansetron, 5-HT2 receptor antagonist, on nausea and emesis induced by cisplatin (CDDP), were investigated along with safety and usefulness. Subjects were chemotherapy patients starting CDDP administration for the first time, who were receiving a high single dose of CDDP (50 mg/m2 or more and intravenous drip infusion of less than 4 hours), or lower multiple doses of CDDP (a single dose of 10 mg/m2 or more, administered intravenously for 3-5 consecutive days). GG032X tablets were administered orally 1-2 hours before CDDP administration. In lower multiple doses of CDDP, GG032X tablets and CDDP were administered, as much as possible, at the same respective time when they were administered on the first day. Efficacy of GG032X tablets was evaluated in terms of inhibitory effect on nausea and emesis 24 hours after administration of a high single dose of CDDP, and of the inhibitory effect on nausea and emesis during the study period (3-5 days) in lower multiple doses of CDDP. Efficacy, safety and usefulness were evaluated in accordance with the evaluation criteria used in the clinical study of already-approved ondanstron tablets. In a high single dose of CDDP, the cases judged "effective" or better in the investigation of the inhibitory effect of the drug on nausea and emesis, accounted for 52.9% (63/119 cases). As for the overall safety rating, the cases judged as "safe" accounted for 87.0% (107/123 cases), and as a "minor safety problem" accounted for 13.0% (16/123 cases). As for the usefulness rating, the cases judged "useful" or better accounted for 52.1% (62/119 cases). Major adverse effects included headache, fever, atrial fibrillation and increases in total bilirubin, GOT and GPT values. None of these was serious, and the patients recovered without any treatment or by nosotropic therapy. Meanwhile, in lower multiple doses of CDDP, the inhibitory effect judged "effective" or better accounted for 70.6% (12/17 cases). As for the overall safety rating, all cases were judged "safe". In terms of usefulness, those cases judged "useful" or better accounted for 70.6% (12/17 cases). No adverse effect was observed. Study results of these two groups were almost the same as those for already-approved ondansetron tablets. According to the results of questionnaires for the patients who participated in the study and took GG032X tablets, the drug was found to be easy to take and had favorable results. Based on the above results, GG032X tablets were evaluated as having the same inhibitory effect as the already-approved ondansetron tablets against CDDP-induced nausea and emesis, and were considered safe and clinically useful.

Fas antigen expression and its relationship with apoptosis in transplanted kidney

A total of 244 human renal biopsy cases were examined under the following three categories of renal disease: (i) transplanted kidney (TK; 127 cases); (ii) primary glomerular disease (GD; 88 cases); and (iii) others (29 cases). In these cases, the immunohistochemical distribution of apoptosis-related proteins (Fas antigen and bcl-2 protein) was investigated. Despite no detection in normal kidney tissues, Fas antigen was highly expressed in the tubular epithelium, indicating that Fas antigen expression was induced on the tubular epithelium in human renal disease. Furthermore, in TK Fas antigen expression was significantly frequent in acute rejection including acute rejection borderline (9/43 cases) and acute rejection stages I-III (10/28 cases), as compared with that in control cases (no rejection, 1/32 cases). Fragmented DNA stained with in situ nick end-labeling was predominantly detected in the tubular epithelium in 6 of 48 cases (23 with transplanted kidney and 21 with glomerular disease). Characteristic nuclear apoptotic changes were detected in the tubular epithelium by light microscopy. These results indicate that apoptosis takes place mainly in the renal tubular epithelium. The present experimental study revealed that Fas mRNA transcripts were induced in human renal cell line by interferon-gamma. This suggests that in situ induction of Fas antigen in the tubular epithelium is mediated, at least in part, by cytokines in association with inflammatory lymphocytic infiltrates. It was also revealed that anti-Fas monoclonal antibody induced apoptosis of the renal cell line through stimulation with interferon-gamma. Taken together, the results suggest that induced expression of Fas antigen on the tubular epithelium might play an important role in apoptosis under acute renal graft rejection.

[A case report of tongue cancer presenting with SSD type brain embolism induced by chemotherapy with CBDCA and 5-FU]

We report a case of tongue cancer presenting with SSD type brain embolism induced by chemotherapy with CBDCA and 5-FU (CF Therapy) A 35-year-old woman underwent CF therapy for squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue. Immediately after CF therapy, aphasia and serious exercise paralysis appeared. However, symptoms disappeared 2 days later and no abnormality was found by brain CT. We report that SSD type brain embolism is one of the noteworthy side effects of CF therapy.

[Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia involving eosinophil cationic protein and bone marrow cells]

A 64-year-old women presented with a dry cough. The common cold was diagnosed and she was given medication, but the symptom did not resolve. She came to our hospital, and multiple patchy shadows were seen on a chest X-ray film. Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid contained an abnormally high percentage of eosinophils. Microscopic examination of transbronchial lung biopsy specimens showed infiltration of eosinophils into the alveoli and alveolar septa. Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia was diagnosed. Analysis of bone marrow cells showed high percentages of mature eosinophilic cells, and blood serum had a high concentration of eosinophil cationic protein. An inhalation challenge test with methacholine revealed bronchial hypersensitivity and hyperresponsiveness. Prednisolone (30 mg/day) was given and the symptoms resolved. After steroid treatment, the patient was asymptomatic, although airway hyperresponsiveness remained. The concentration of eosinophil cationic protein in serum and the results of the methacholine inhalation test reflected the degree of chronic eosinophilic pneumonia, and the production of eosinophils in bone marrow was suppressed by steroid medication.

[High concentrations of interleukin-8 in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid from a patient with adult respiratory distress syndrome]

A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital due to acute onset of a dry cough and dyspnea on exertion. Arterial blood gas analysis showed hypoxemia (PaO2 = 63 Torr) on room air. Chest radiography and computed tomography showed diffuse bilateral infiltrates. Adult respiratory distress syndrome was diagnosed from the findings described above and from the lack of evidence of left heart failure. Diffuse alveolar damage was confirmed at autopsy. During the course of his illness, the patient underwent bronchoalveolar lavage five times. The recovered fluid had high concentrations of interleukin-8 (IL-8), with a maximum of 6260 pg/ml and a minimum of 190 pg/ml, and these values correlated with the number of polymorphonuclear cells in the fluid. Levels of leukotriene B4, another chemotactic factor for PMN, in the lavage fluid were not high. We conclude that IL-8 was a major chemoattractant for PMN in the alveoli of this patient.

Expression of bone marrow stromal cell specific antigen during murine development: its expression in embryonic hematopoietic tissues as well as in other developing tissues

Monoclonal antibody R4-A9 demonstrated specificity for a cell surface antigen of stromal cells in murine bone marrow and spleen. In order to identify patterns of expression that may elucidate the potential role of R4-A9 antigen, the developmental expression of this antigen in mouse embryos from 8 days post-coitum to 5 days post-partum was investigated by immunohistochemistry. At an early developmental stage, weak staining for R4-A9 antigen could be detected in the yolk sac. At later stages, strong staining of this antigen was detected predominantly in the embryonic liver, the main site of embryonic hematopoiesis. However, concomitant with the decreased staining in the liver, increased expression of this antigen was observed in bone marrow and spleen. Therefore, the changes in expression in those hematopoietic tissues suggest that its expression is coordinately regulated during the developmental stage of the sites of embryonic hematopoiesis. Compared with the distribution of R4-A9 antigen in adult tissues as previously reported, the expression of this antigen in fetal tissues was more widespread during the period of organogenesis, and was most abundant in other developing tissues, including the heart, skin, and lung. In contrast, fetal expression detected in hematopoietic and other developing tissues was lost after birth. These results taken together show a marked gradient of R4-A9 antigen expression, with the highest level at the peak of organ development, raising the possibility that this molecule may act as a growth/differentiation factor both in hematopoietic and other developing tissues in a fetus.

[Clear skeletal visualization on whole body 201Tl-chloride scintigraphy: a case of prostatic cancer with diffuse bone metastases]

A 70-yr-old man who was diagnosed as early gastric cancer showed leukocytopenia after total gastrectomy. Osteosclerotic findings on radiography were not remarkable. 99mTc-HMDP bone scintigraphy showed diffusely increased uptake in the axial skeleton, but visualization of the kidney and urinary bladder was apparent. However, whole body 201Tl-chloride scintigraphy showed diffuse abnormal visualization of axial skeleton. Physical and ultrasonographic examination indicated no abnormality in prostate. Afterward, further investigation, including bone marrow biopsy and immunohistochemical study, confirmed the diagnosis of bone metastasis from prostatic cancer. Microscopically, metastatic tumor cells were located in the intertrabecular space. Furthermore, no osteoclastic bone resorption or new trabecular bone formation was seen in this biopsy specimen. These findings suggest that whole body 201Tl-chloride scintigraphy can be a useful non-invasive diagnostic tool to investigate patients with suspicious malignancy in the bone marrow.

Pyrimidine nucleoside phosphorylase-activity and biological characteristics of breast-cancer

We investigated whether Pyrimidine nucleoside phosphorylase (PyNPase) activity in breast cancer tissue correlated with biological characteristics of breast cancer. PyNPase activity, ER, PgR, EGFR, DNA ploidy pattern, PCNA positive cells and amplification of the c-erbB-2 gene were determined in specimens from 138 patients. PyNPase activity was significantly higher in ER negative than ER positive carcinomas (p<0.05), in PgR negative than PgR positive carcinomas (p<0.05) and significantly higher in tumors with c-erbB-2 gene amplification compared with tumors with no amplification (p<0.05). The results suggest that PyNPase activity in breast cancer tissue may be a new biological characteristic of breast cancer.

[Two case reports of retroperitoneal leiomyosarcoma]

Two cases of retroperitoneal leiomyosarcoma are presented. The first case was in a 67-year-old female, whose chief complaint of right upper abdominal mass and dull pain. The tumor, 13 x 12 x 8 cm in size, developing in the retroperitoneum was removed with the right kidney and vena cava. The pathological diagnosis was reported as leiomyosarcoma. The second case was in a 62-year-old male, whose complaint was left abdominal swelling, also with general fatigue. A large tumor mass, invading over all of the left flank organs, was palpable by physical examinations, from which the mass was far beyond surgical approach. Needle biopsy revealed the pathological finding of leiomyosarcoma. One month later, the patient died of cachexia. Review of the literatures for the retroperitoneal leiomyosarcoma, revealed only a few cases; 1.7%, of all leiomyosarcoma to date.

[Clinical phase III study of tropisetron capsule in the treatment of nausea and vomiting induced by anti-cancer drug; a placebo-controlled, multicenter, double-blind comparative study]

A placebo-controlled, double-blind comparative study of tropisetron capsule was conducted to assess its clinical usefulness for nausea and vomiting induced by the anticancer drug, cisplatin, at a single dose of 50 mg/m2 or higher. Either 5mg tropisetron capsule or its placebo was given orally to patients 2 hours prior to cisplatin administration; the clinical efficacy was determined the severity of nausea and the number of emesis that occurred during 24 hours after cisplatin. Tropisetron significantly exceeded the placebo in the assessment of clinical efficacy. The ratings for the tropisetron group and the placebo group were 91.7% (22/24 cases) and 25.9% (7/27 cases), respectively. Adverse events observed were one case of headache in the tropisetron group and one diarrhea in the placebo group, while neither case was serious nor clinically problematic in particular. The above results reveal that tropisetron 5 mg capsule is significantly effective in the treatment of anticancer drug-induced nausea and vomiting. It has also been confirmed that tropisetron is a useful agent without any safety problems.

[Clinical phase III study of tropisetron capsule in the treatment of nausea and vomiting induced by carboplatin or non-platinum anti-cancer drugs]

A clinical phase III study of tropisetron capsule was conducted to assess its efficacy, safety and usefulness on nausea and vomiting induced by carboplatin or non-platinum anti-cancer drugs. The study was conducted in patients who experienced vomiting on previous chemotherapy. Tropisetron 5 mg capsule was given to patients once 2 hours prior to the first administration of either carboplatin or non-platinum anti-cancer drugs; the patients were then observed for nausea and/or vomiting during 24 hours after the first administration. Some 56.7% (17/30) of the patients did not vomit after tropisetron administration, and the frequency of vomiting was significantly reduced compared with that during the previous chemotherapy. Further, in the clinical efficacy ratings, in which the efficacy was assessed on the basis of the nausea and vomiting data, 83.3% (25/30) of cases were rated as "effective or better". Adverse events observed were 3 cases of mild headache, but these were not clinically problematic. The above results reveal that tropisetron capsule is significantly effective and safe in the treatment of nausea and vomiting induced by carboplatin or non-platinum anti-cancer drugs; in addition, tropisetron proved to be highly useful for its convenience as an oral agent.