Measurement of the major ignored burden of multiple myeloma, pernicious anaemia and of other haematological conditions on partners and family members: A cross-sectional study

BACKGROUND

Having a haematological condition can adversely affect the quality of life (QoL) of family members/partners of patients. It is important to measure this often ignored burden in order to implement appropriate supportive interventions.

OBJECTIVE

To measure current impact of haematological conditions on the QoL of family members/partners of patients, using the Family Reported Outcome Measure-16 (FROM-16).

METHODS

A cross-sectional study, recruited online through patient support groups, involved UK family members/partners of people with haematological conditions completing the FROM-16.

RESULTS

183 family members/partners (mean age = 60.5 years, SD = 13.2; females = 62.8%) of patients (mean age = 64.1, SD = 12.8; females = 46.4%) with 12 haematological conditions completed the FROM-16. The FROM-16 mean total score was 14.0 (SD = 7.2), meaning 'a moderate effect on QoL'. The mean FROM-16 scores of family members of people with multiple myeloma (mean = 15.8, SD = 6.3, n = 99) and other haematological malignancies (mean = 13.9, SD = 7.8, n = 29) were higher than of people with pernicious anaemia (mean = 10.7, SD = 7.5, n = 47) and other non-malignant conditions (mean = 11, SD = 7.4, n = 56, p < .01). Over one third (36.1%, n = 183) of family members experienced a 'very large effect' (FROM-16 score>16) on their quality of life.

CONCLUSIONS

Haematological conditions, in particular those of malignant type, impact the QoL of family members/partners of patients. Healthcare professionals can now, using FROM-16, identify those most affected and should consider how to provide appropriate holistic support within routine practice.

Responsiveness and minimal important change of the Family Reported Outcome Measure (FROM-16)

BACKGROUND

The FROM-16 is a generic family quality of life (QoL) instrument that measures the QoL impact of patients' disease on their family members/partners. The study aimed to assess the responsiveness of FROM-16 to change and determine Minimal Important Change (MIC).

METHODS

Responsiveness and MIC for FROM-16 were assessed prospectively with patients and their family members recruited from outpatient departments of the University Hospital Wales and University Hospital Llandough, Cardiff, United Kingdom. Patients completed the EQ-5D-3L and a global severity question (GSQ) online at baseline and at 3-month follow-up. Family members completed FROM-16 at baseline and a Global Rating of Change (GRC) in addition to FROM-16 at follow-up. Responsiveness was assessed using the distribution-based (effect size-ES, standardized response mean -SRM) and anchor-based (area under the receiver operating characteristics curve ROC-AUC) approaches and by testing hypotheses on expected correlation strength between FROM-16 change score and patient assessment tools (GSQ and EQ-5D). Cohen's criteria were used for assessing ES. The AUC ≥ 0.7 was considered a good measure of responsiveness. MIC was calculated using anchor-based (ROC analysis and adjusted predictive modelling) and distribution methods based on standard deviation (SD) and standard error of the measurement (SEM).

RESULTS

Eighty-three patients with 15 different health conditions and their relatives completed baseline and follow-up questionnaires and were included in the responsiveness analysis. The mean FROM-16 change over 3 months = 1.43 (SD = 4.98). The mean patient EQ-5D change over 3 months = -0.059 (SD = 0.14). The responsiveness analysis showed that the FROM-16 was responsive to change (ES = 0.2, SRM = 0.3; p < 0.01). The ES and SRM of FROM-16 change score ranged from small (ES = 0.2; SRM = 0.3) for the distribution-based method to large (ES = 0.8, SRM = 0.85) for anchor-based methods. The AUC value was above 0.7, indicating good responsiveness. There was a significant positive correlation between the FROM-16 change scores and the patient's disease severity change scores (p < 0.001). The MIC analysis was based on data from 100 family members of 100 patients. The MIC value of 4 was suggested for FROM-16.

CONCLUSIONS

The results of this study confirm the longitudinal validity of FROM-16 which refers to the degree to which an instrument is able to measure change in the construct to be measured. The results yield a MIC value of 4 for FROM-16. These psychometric attributes of the FROM-16 instrument are useful in both clinical research as well as clinical practice.

P14.24 Estimating survival outcomes in elderly (70+ years) patients with primary glioblastoma

BACKGROUND

Elderly patients with glioblastoma are perceived to face a poor prognosis, with perceptions around older age and a relative lack of randomized data raising a concern about their undertreatment. The EANO guidelines recommend &gt;70-year-old patients with good performance status to undergo maximal safe resection followed by hypofractionated (40 Gy in 15 fractions, i.e. RT40/15) radiotherapy with or without concurrent and adjuvant Temozolomide (TMZ), depending on MGMT promoter methylation. This study evaluated the relative survival impact of biological, histological, surgical and oncological factors and aimed to devise a scoring system to estimate the survival of elderly glioblastoma patients, with an aim to more accurately guide treatment in this cohort.

METHODS

The records of 169 elderly (≥70 years) patients with a new diagnosis of IDH-wild type glioblastoma were retrospectively examined for gender, age, WHO performance status (PS), comorbidities, MGMT methylation, surgical intervention and chemoradiation regime. The adjusted survival impact of these factors was determined using Cox proportional hazards model and used to devise a two-stage scoring system to estimate survival of patients at the stage of surgical (Elderly Glioblastoma Surgical Score, EGSS) and oncological management (Elderly Glioblastoma Oncological Score, EGOS).

RESULTS

The overall median survival (MS) of the cohort was 28.8 weeks. Subtotal resection (MS=27.7 weeks, 95%CI 24.1–31.6 weeks, HR=0.58) and gross-total resection (MS=77.8 weeks, 95%CI 67.0–88.6 weeks, HR=0.36) were associated with significant overall survival benefit compared to biopsy alone (MS=18.2 weeks, 95%CI 15.7–20.7 weeks, HR=5.23), p&lt;0.05. Hypofractionated radiation with Temozolomide (RT40/15+TMZ, MS=60.9 weeks, 95%CI 49.9–71.8 weeks, HR=0.13) was non-inferior to the Stupp protocol (RT60/30+TMZ, MS=50.6 weeks, 95%CI 32.4–66.7 weeks, HR=0.11), p=0.72. Negative prognosticators included age above 75 years, biopsy alone and no chemoradiotherapy. Subgroup analysis revealed that MGMT unmethylated 70–75 year old patients who received the Stupp protocol had significantly improved overall survival (MS=57.6 weeks, 95%CI 27.7–88.1 weeks) compared to standard of care RT40/15 alone (MS=29.7 weeks, 95%CI 7.1–51.6 weeks), p=0.002. EGSS and EGOS scores estimated survival with 65% and 73% accuracy, respectively.

CONCLUSION

When appropriate and safe, a subgroup of elderly glioblastoma patients may benefit from more aggressive surgical and oncological management. The proposed EGSS and EGOS scores takes into account important prognostic factors to help guide which patients should receive such treatment.

Intraoperative pyloric botulinum toxin injection during Ivor-Lewis gastroesophagectomy to prevent delayed gastric emptying

Delayed gastric emptying (DGE) is a common morbidity that affects 10%-50% of Ivor-Lewis gastroesophagectomy (ILGO) patients. DGE management is variable with no gold standard prevention or treatment. We conducted a study to assess the effectiveness of intraoperative pyloric botulinum toxin injection in preventing DGE. All patients undergoing an ILGO for curative intent, semi-mechanical anastomosis, and enhanced recovery between 1st December 2011 and 30th June 2017 were included. Patients with pyloroplasties were excluded and botulinum toxin was routinely given from the 2nd April 2016. We compared botulinum toxin injection (BOTOX) against no intervention (NONE) for patient demographics, adjuvant therapy, surgical approach, DGE incidence, length of stay (LOS), and complications. Additionally, we compared pneumonia risk, anastomotic leak rate, and LOS in DGE versus non-DGE patients. DGE was defined using nasogastric tube input/output differences and chest X-ray appearance according to an algorithm adopted in our unit, which were retrospectively applied. There were 228 patients: 65 (28.5%) received botulinum toxin and 163 (71.5%) received no intervention. One hundred twenty-four (54.4%) operations were performed laparoscopically, of which 11 (4.8%) were converted to open procedures, and 104 (45.6%) were open operations. DGE incidence was 11 (16.9%) in BOTOX and 29 (17.8%) in NONE, P = 0.13. Medical management was required in 14 of 228 (6.1%) cases: 3 (4.6%) in BOTOX and 11 (4.8%) in NONE. Pyloric dilatation was required in 26 of 228 (11.4%): 8 of 65 (12.3%) in the BOTOX and 18 of 163 (11.0%) in NONE. There were no significant differences between groups and requirement for intervention, P = 0.881. Overall median LOS was 10 (6.0-75.0) days: 9 (7.0-75.0) in BOTOX and 10 (6.0-70.0) in NONE, P = 0.516. In non-DGE versus DGE patients, median LOS was 9 (6-57) versus 14 (7-75) days (P < 0.0001), pneumonia incidence of 27.7% versus 30.0% (P = 0.478), and anastomotic leak rate of 2.1% versus 10.0% (P = 0.014). Overall leak rate was 3.5%. Overall complication rate was 67.1%, including minor/mild complications. There were 43 of 65 (66.2%) in BOTOX and 110 of 163 (67.5%) in NONE, P = 0.482. In-hospital mortality was 1 (0.44%), 30-day mortality was 2 (0.88%), 90-day mortality was 5 (2.2%), and there were no 30-day readmissions. Intraoperative pyloric botulinum toxin injections were ineffective in preventing DGE (BOTOX vs. NONE: 16.9% vs. 17.8%) or reducing postoperative complications. DGE was relatively common (17.5%) with 11.4% of patients requiring postoperative balloon dilatation. DGE also resulted in prolonged LOS (increase from 9 to 14 days) and significant increase in leak rate from 2.1% to 10.0%. A better understanding of DGE will guide assessment, investigation, and management of the condition.

Laparoscopic common bile duct exploration; a preferential pathway for elderly patients

Background

Laparoscopic common bile duct exploration (LCBDE) has emerged as a recommended alternative to endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) for the management of choledocholithiasis. However, its use in the elderly has been limited, and evidence of its safety and efficacy in these patients is yet to be established. This study describes our experience of LCBDE in elderly patients, analysing the safety and efficacy of this technique in comparison to younger patients.

Methods

All patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) with LCBDE for choledocholithiasis in our unit between January 2015 and January 2017 were included. Data pertaining to patient demographics, comorbidities, investigations, operative technique and outcomes were analysed. Patients were divided into 2 groups based on age (Group A:<65 years vs Group B: >/ = 65 years) for comparative analysis.

Results

124 patients (Group A: 65, Group B: 59) were included. Group B were more co-morbid and had a higher ASA grade than Group A. However, there was no significant difference between groups in rates of conversion to open or complications, including bile leak (3.1% vs 5.1%, p = 0.67), retained stone (4.6% vs 1.7%, p = 0.62), or complications according to Clavien-Dindo classification (p = 0.78). Re-intervention rates were also similar between groups (7.7% vs 3.4%, p = 0.44 and 3.1% vs 3.4%, p = 1.0 respectively), as was length of stay.

Conclusion

Despite higher frequency of comorbidities and ASA grade, LCBDE in elderly patients is safe and effective, and has similar outcomes to younger patients. Therefore elderly patients with choledocholithiasis should be offered LCBDE as an alternative to ERCP.

Abstract P1-08-02: Breast tumor-specific MHC-II expression drives a unique pattern of adaptive resistance to antitumor immunity through MHC-II receptor checkpoint engagement

Background: We have previously shown that some breast cancers express major histocompatibility complex II (MHC-II), correlating with enhanced immune infiltration. In other tumor types, we have shown that MHC-II expression on tumor cells predicts clinical response to checkpoint inhibition. We sought to determine the direct effects of MHC-II on anti-tumor immunity and characterize mechanisms of immune escape in this breast cancer subset.

Methods: To determine the functional effects of MHC-II on tumor cells, we generated isogenic mouse breast tumor cells with enforced MHC-II expression and determined their ability to generate tumors in syngeneic mice, the impact on immunity, and their response to checkpoint inhibition. In a series of molecularly-characterized HER2+ (n=8) and triple-negative breast cancers (TNBC; n=103), we performed immunohistochemistry (IHC) and quantitative immunofluorescence (QIF) for Lag-3, PD-L1, CD4, CD8, FCRL6, and granzyme B.

Results: Following injection in syngeneic immunocompetent mice, MHC-II+ mouse breast tumors were more frequently rejected (p=0.04) and recruited greater numbers of CD4+ TILs. When MHC-II+ tumors escaped rejection, they expressed higher degrees of PD-1 and Lag-3 in the tumor and in the draining lymph node. Since Lag-3 is a checkpoint that specifically targets MHC-II, we hypothesized that MHC-II+ breast cancers escape anti-tumor immunity through suppressing MHC-II-mediated antigen presentation. Combinations of anti-Lag-3 and anti-Pd-1 antibodies inhibited growth of MHC-II+ tumors. These findings led us to also explore Fc receptor-like 6 (FCRL6), a previously reported MHC-II receptor expressed on NK and cytotoxic T cells. Residual MHC-II+ TNBC post-neoadjuvant chemotherapy (NAC) recruited greater numbers of CD4+ and CD8+ TILs (p=0.0001 and p=0.0002), suggesting enhanced immune recognition. However, MHC-II+ TNBCs also demonstrated a greater frequency of Lag-3+ and FCRL6+ TILs (p&lt;0.001 and p=0.01, respectively) which frequently co-occurred (p=0.003). Thus, our data suggest that MHC-II expression in breast tumors supports recruitment of MHC-II-specific checkpoint-positive TILs. In line with this concept, QIF analysis demonstrated that the presence of Lag3+ and/or FCRL6+ TILs was strongly associated with suppression of T cell cytotoxicity as assessed by granzyme-B+ CD8+ T cells (p=0.0001 and p=0.002, respectively). Functional analyses of FCRL6 on human NK cell lines and peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) demonstrated that like Lag3, FCRL6 is a checkpoint which engages MHC-II and suppresses cytotoxic NK and T cell activity.

Conclusions: These data suggest that MHC-II+ breast tumors are immunologically active and circumvent anti-tumor immunity by targeting MHC-II antigen presentation through recruitment of Lag-3+ and FCRL6+ TILs. We describe herein FCRL6 as a novel bona fide immune checkpoint which targets MHC-II, which may impact a variety of cancers. MHC-II expression status may be a useful biomarker for patient stratification on anti-PD-1/anti-Lag-3 combination, and eventually, anti-PD-1/anti-FCRL6 combinations in patients with breast cancer.

Citation Format: Balko JM, Johnson DB, Ericsson-Gonzalez P, Nixon MJ, Salgado R, Sanchez V, Shreeder DM, Rimm DL, Loi S, Kim JY, Bordeaux J, Sanders ME, Davis RS. Breast tumor-specific MHC-II expression drives a unique pattern of adaptive resistance to antitumor immunity through MHC-II receptor checkpoint engagement [abstract]. In: Proceedings of the 2017 San Antonio Breast Cancer Symposium; 2017 Dec 5-9; San Antonio, TX. Philadelphia (PA): AACR; Cancer Res 2018;78(4 Suppl):Abstract nr P1-08-02.

Abstract P1-13-08: Extended adjuvant neratinib/fulvestrant blocks ER/HER2 crosstalk and maintains complete responses of ER+/HER2+ tumors following treatment with chemotherapy and anti-HER2 therapy

Background: Neratinib is a potent, irreversible pan-HER tyrosine kinase inhibitor. The phase III trial ExteNET showed improved disease-free survival in patients (pts) with HER2+ breast cancer treated with neratinib vs placebo after trastuzumab-based adjuvant therapy. The benefit from neratinib appeared to be greater in pts with ER+ tumors. Thus, we sought to elucidate mechanisms that may explain the benefit from extended adjuvant therapy with neratinib in pts with ER+/HER2+ breast cancer using a human-in-mouse model that simulates the clinical outcomes seen in ExteNET.

Results: Mice with established ER+/HER2 amplified MDA-361 tumors were treated with trastuzumab (tz) + paclitaxel (pac) for 4 weeks, and then randomized to fulvestrant (fulv) ± neratinib for 4 weeks. All MDA-361 tumors exhibited a prompt and marked reduction in volume after tz/pac treatment; 10 mice achieved a complete response (CR) before receiving 'extended adjuvant' therapy with fulv (n=5) or neratinib/fulv (n=5). A CR was maintained with neratinib/fulv following tz/pac. However, mice treated with fulv alone, relapsed rapidly (p&lt;0.05 at week 8) despite of a complete downregulation of tumor ER levels. In a second experiment, nude mice with established MDA-361 xenografts were treated with pertuzumab/tz/pac for 4 weeks. Following a CR, mice were randomized to neratinib/fulv vs. fulv. Again, mice treated with neratinib/fulv maintained a CR, while mice in the fulv alone arm exhibited tumor progressions within a week. In three ER+/HER2+ cell lines (MDA-361, BT474 and UACC893) but not in ER+/HER– MCF7 cells, treatment with neratinib induced ER reporter transcriptional activity whereas treatment with fulv resulted in an increase in HER2 phosphorylation, suggesting compensatory crosstalk between the ER and HER2 pathways. To further understand the molecular basis of this crosstalk, MDA-361 tumor-bearing mice were treated with either fulv, neratinib or the combination for 7 days, after which tumors were harvested and analyzed using a Nanostring breast cancer ER panel consisting of 196 ER-regulated genes. Compared to vehicle or fulv-treated tumors, tumors treated with neratinib alone and neratinib/fulv showed marked downregulation of cyclin D1 mRNA expression. Similarly, in MDA-361, BT474 and UACC893 cells but not in MCF7 cells, only neratinib/fulv downregulated cyclin D1, P-AKT and P-ERK. Finally, treatment with neratinib/fulv but not fulv alone reduced cyclin D1 transcriptional reporter activity and cyclin D1 protein levels, and induced cell cycle arrest, suggesting double blockade is required to overcome compensatory crosstalk between ER and amplified HER2.

Conclusions: Neratinib/fulv but not fulv alone maintained complete responses of ER+/HER+ tumors following treatment with tz/pac or pertuzumab/tz/pac, reminiscent of the results in ExteNET. Neratinib treatment promoted ER transcriptional activity whereas ER downregulation with fulv was associated with increased HER2 signaling. In ER+/HER2+ breast cancer cells and tumors, neratinib/fulv synergistically inhibited growth, cyclin D1 expression, and AKT and MAPK activation, thus providing a plausible mechanism to explain the results in the ExteNET trial.

Citation Format: Sudhan DR, Schwarz LJ, Guerrero-Zotano AL, Nixon M, Formisano L, Croessmann S, Gonzalez Ericsson PI, Sanders ME, Balko JM, Avogadri-Connors F, Cutler RE, Lalani AS, Bryce R, Auerbach A, Arteaga CL. Extended adjuvant neratinib/fulvestrant blocks ER/HER2 crosstalk and maintains complete responses of ER+/HER2+ tumors following treatment with chemotherapy and anti-HER2 therapy [abstract]. In: Proceedings of the 2017 San Antonio Breast Cancer Symposium; 2017 Dec 5-9; San Antonio, TX. Philadelphia (PA): AACR; Cancer Res 2018;78(4 Suppl):Abstract nr P1-13-08.

Abstract GS6-05: Gain-of-function kinase library screen identifies FGFR1 amplification as a mechanism of resistance to antiestrogens and CDK4/6 inhibitors in ER+ breast cancer

Background: CDK4/6 inhibitors have been approved in combination with endocrine therapy for treatment of ER+ metastatic breast cancer. The goal of this study was to discover mechanisms of resistance to ER antagonists alone and in combination with CDK4/6 inhibitors.

Results: To achieve this goal, we used lentiviral vectors to individually express 559 human kinase open reading frames (ORFs) in ER+ MCF7 human breast cancer cells treated with fulvestrant ± the CDK4/6 inhibitor ribociclib. In MCF7 cells treated with fulvestrant alone or with ribociclib, we identified 15 and 17 kinases associated with resistance, respectively. Ten of these kinases overlapped in both groups. In a secondary screen, MCF7 cells were stably transduced with V5-tagged lentiviruses expressing the positive 'hits' for treatment with fulvestrant/ribociclib. Five of 17 kinases (FGFR1, FRK, HCK, FGR, CRKL) were confirmed to induce resistance to fulvestrant/palbociclib and fulvestrant/ribociblib. Survey of TCGA for copy number alterations and/or expression of these 5 genes showed only FGFR1 to be amplified/overexpressed in ˜15% of ER+ breast cancers. Experiments in vitro showed that ER+/FGFR1-amplified (amp) MDA-134, CAMA-1 and HCC1500 human breast cancer cells and MCF7 cells stably transduced with FGFR1 were relatively resistant to estrogen deprivation, fulvestrant and fulvestrant/palbociclib compared to non-FGFR1 amp MCF7 cells. This resistance was abrogated by treatment with the FGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) lucitanib. Treatment with fulvestrant or palbociclib alone modestly delayed growth of ER+/FGFR1-amp breast cancer patient-derived xenografts (PDX) established in nude mice. However, addition of the FGFR TKI erdafitinib to fulvestrant/palbociclib resulted in marked PDX regression in all mice without associated toxicity and a complete cell cycle arrest measured by Ki67. Treatment of FGFR-amp cells with FGF-2 strongly induced CCND1 (cyclin D1) expression. Downregulation of CCND1 with CCND1 RNAi oligonucleotides restored sensitivity of FGFR1-amp cells to fulvestrant/palbociclib, thus phenocopying the effect of FGFR TKIs. Conversely, overexpression of CCND1 in MCF7 cells induced resistance to estrogen deprivation and to fulvestrant ± palbociclib. Finally, we examined next gen sequencing of cell free tumor DNA by Guardant360 in 34 patients before and after progression on CDK4/6 inhibitor. In 10/34 (29%) post-progression specimens, we detected alterations in the FGFR pathway: FGFR1 amplification (n=7), FGFR1 N546K (n=1), FGFR2 N549K (n=1), and FGFR2 V395D (n=1) activating mutations.

Conclusions: These data suggest aberrant FGFR signaling is a mechanism of resistance to anti-ER therapies ± CDK4/6 inhibitors. We posit overexpression of cyclin D1 induced by both FGFR signaling and ER transcription plays a role in drug resistance. Based on these findings we propose ER+/FGFR1 amplified breast cancers are endocrine resistant and should be candidates for treatment with combinations of ER and FGFR antagonists. Accordingly, we have initiated a phase Ib trial of fulvestrant, palbociclib and erdafitinib in patients with antiestrogen resistant ER+/HER2-negative breast cancer with FGFR1-4 amplification.

Citation Format: Formisano L, Lu Y, Jansen VM, Bauer JA, Hanker A, Gonzalez Ericsson P, Lee K-M, Nixon MJ, Guerrero-Zotano AL, Schwarz LJ, Sanders M, Sudhan D, Dugger TC, Cruz MR, Behdad A, Cristofanilli M, Bardia A, O'Shaughnessy J, Mayer IA, Arteaga CL. Gain-of-function kinase library screen identifies FGFR1 amplification as a mechanism of resistance to antiestrogens and CDK4/6 inhibitors in ER+ breast cancer [abstract]. In: Proceedings of the 2017 San Antonio Breast Cancer Symposium; 2017 Dec 5-9; San Antonio, TX. Philadelphia (PA): AACR; Cancer Res 2018;78(4 Suppl):Abstract nr GS6-05.

An atypical case of medial radial head dislocation

Radial head dislocations are common in children who fall onto outstretched hands. We present a case of medial radial head dislocation without a concomitant ulna fracture in a 14-year-old girl and the long-term sequelae of the injury.

Coupled lasers: phase versus chaos synchronization

The synchronization of chaotic lasers and the optical phase synchronization of light originating in multiple coupled lasers have both been extensively studied. However, the interplay between these two phenomena, especially at the network level, is unexplored. Here, we experimentally compare these phenomena by controlling the heterogeneity of the coupling delay times of two lasers. While chaotic lasers exhibit deterioration in synchronization as the time delay heterogeneity increases, phase synchronization is found to be independent of heterogeneity. The experimental results are found to be in agreement with numerical simulations for semiconductor lasers.

Efficient method for controlling the spatial coherence of a laser

An efficient method to tune the spatial coherence of a degenerate laser over a broad range with minimum variation in the total output power is presented. It is based on varying the diameter of a spatial filter inside the laser cavity. The number of lasing modes supported by the degenerate laser can be controlled from 1 to 320,000, with less than a 50% change in the total output power. We show that a degenerate laser designed for low spatial coherence can be used as an illumination source for speckle-free microscopy that is nine orders of magnitude brighter than conventional thermal light.

Phase locking of lasers with self-stabilized minimal coupling

A novel configuration for phase locking two ring lasers with self-stabilized minimal exchange of power between them is presented. We show experimentally that losses introduced between the lasers are self compensated in order to maintain minimal power exchange between them. The experimental results are in good agreement with numerical results.

5α-reduced glucocorticoids exhibit dissociated anti-inflammatory and metabolic effects

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE

Dissociating anti-inflammatory efficacy from the metabolic side effects of glucocorticoids is an attractive therapeutic goal. 5α-Tetrahydro-corticosterone (5αTHB), produced from corticosterone by 5α-reductases, activates glucocorticoid receptors. This study compares the effects of 5αTHB on inflammation and metabolism in vitro and in vivo.

METHODS

Suppression of cytokine release by 5αTHB and corticosterone were studied following LPS activation of mouse bone marrow derived macrophages. In vivo the efficacy of these steroids to dysregulate metabolic homeostasis and modulate immune suppression and the responses to thioglycollate-induced peritonitis in C57BL/6 mice were studied following acute injection (1.5-15 mg) and chronic infusion (50 µg·day(-1) , 14 days).

RESULTS

In macrophages, 5αTHB increased secretion of IL-10 similarly to corticosterone (180%, 340%; data are % vehicle, treated with 5αTHB and corticosterone, respectively) and suppressed LPS-induced secretion of TNF-α (21.9%, 74.2%) and IL-6 (16.4%, 69.4%). In mice with thioglycollate-induced peritonitis, both 5αTHB and corticosterone reduced the numbers of neutrophils (58.6%, 49.9%) and inflammatory monocytes (69.5%, 96.4%), and also suppressed MCP-1 (48.7%, 80.9%) and IL-6 (53.5%, 86.7%) in peritoneal exudate. In mice chronically infused with 5αTHB and corticosterone LPS-induced production of TNF-α from whole blood was suppressed to the same degree (63.2%, 37.2%). However, in contrast to corticosterone, 5αTHB did not induce body weight loss, increase blood pressure or induce hyperinsulinaemia.

CONCLUSIONS

5αTHB has anti-inflammatory effects in vitro and in vivo. At doses with equivalent anti-inflammatory efficacy to corticosterone, 5αTHB did not induce metabolic toxicity and thus may be a prototype for a safer anti-inflammatory drug.

Enhanced coherence of weakly coupled lasers

We present the phase-locking and coherence properties between two weakly coupled lasers. We show how the degree of coherence between the two lasers can be enhanced by nearly 1 order of magnitude after taking into account the effects of coupling on both their phases as well as their amplitudes. Specifically, correlations between synchronized spikes in the amplitude dynamics and the phase dynamics of the lasers allow for an interference pattern with a fringe visibility of 90%, even when the coupling strength is far below the critical value and they are not phase locked.

Genetic parameters of milking frequency and milk production traits in Canadian Holsteins milked by an automated milking system

Twice-a-day milking is currently the most frequently used milking schedule in Canadian dairy cattle. However, with an automated milking system (AMS), dairy cows can be milked more frequently. The objective of this study was to estimate genetic parameters for milking frequency and for production traits of cows milked within an AMS. Data were 141,927 daily records of 953 primiparous Holstein cows from 14 farms in Ontario and Quebec. Most cows visited the AMS 2 (46%) or 3 (37%) times a day. A 2-trait [daily (24-h) milking frequency and daily (24-h) milk yield] random regression daily animal model and a multiple-trait (milk, fat, protein yields, somatic cell score, and milking frequency) random regression test-day animal model were used for the estimation of (co)variance components. Both models included fixed effect of herd x test-date, fixed regressions on days in milk (DIM) nested within age at calving by season of calving, and random regressions for additive genetic and permanent environmental effects. Both fixed and random regressions were fitted with fourth-order Legendre polynomials on DIM. The number of cows in the multiple-trait test-day model was smaller compared with the daily animal model. Heritabilities from the daily model for daily (24-h) milking frequency and daily (24-h) milk yield ranged between 0.02 and 0.08 and 0.14 and 0.20, respectively. Genetic correlations between daily (24-h) milk yield and daily (24-h) milking frequency were largest at the end of lactation (0.80) and smallest in mid-lactation (0.27). Heritabilities from the test-day model for test-day milking frequency, milk, fat and protein yield, and somatic cell score were 0.14, 0.26, 0.20, 0.21, and 0.20, respectively. The genetic correlation was positive between test-day milking frequency and official test-day milk, fat, and protein yields, and negative between official test-day somatic cell score and test-day milking frequency.

Incidence of MRSA surgical-site infection in MRSA carriers in an orthopaedic trauma unit

We examined the incidence of infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in patients admitted to the Leicester Royal Infirmary Trauma Unit between January 2004 and June 2006. The influence of MRSA status at the time of their admission was examined, together with age, gender and diagnosis, using multi-variant analysis. Of 2473 patients, 79 (3.2%) were MRSA carriers at the time of admission and 2394 (96.8%) were MRSA-negative. Those carrying MRSA at the time of admission were more likely to develop surgical site infection with MRSA (7 of 79 patients, 8.8%) than non-MRSA carriers (54 of 2394 patients, 2.2%, p < 0.001). Further analysis showed that hip fracture and increasing age were also risk factors with a linear increase in relative risk of 1.8% per year.

MRSA carriage at admission, age and the pathology are all associated with an increased rate of developing MRSA wound infection. Identification of such risk factors at admission helps to target health-care resources, such the use of glycopeptide antibiotics at induction and the ‘building-in’ of increased vigilance for wound infection pre-operatively.

Phase locking of lasers with intracavity polarization elements

New configurations for phase locking several laser beams with intracavity polarization elements are presented. With this configuration we demonstrated efficient phase lock of up to 24 ND:YAG laser beams with only two polarization beam displacers.

Does bone quality predict loosening of cemented total hip replacements?

We matched 78 patients with a loose cemented Charnley Elite Plus total hip replacement (THR) by age, gender, race, prosthesis and time from surgery with 49 patients with a well-fixed stable hip replacement, to determine if poor bone quality predisposes to loosening. Clinical, radiological, biomechanical and bone mineral density indicators of bone quality were assessed.

Patients with loose replacements had more pain, were more likely to have presented with atrophic arthritis and to have a history of fragility fracture, narrower femoral cortices and lower peri-prosthetic or lumbar spine bone mineral density (all t-test, p < 0.01). They also tended to be smokers (chi-squared test, p = 0.08). Vitamin-D deficiency was common, but not significantly different between the two groups (t-test, p = 0.31)

In this series of cemented hip replacements performed between 1994 and 1998, aseptic loosening was associated with poor bone quality. Patients with a THR should be screened for osteoporosis and have regular radiological surveillance.

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus on orthopaedic wards: incidence, spread, mortality, cost and control

We examined the rates of infection and colonisation by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) between January 2003 and May 2004 in order to assess the impact of the introduction of an MRSA policy in October 2003, which required all admissions to be screened. Emergency admissions were treated prophylactically and elective beds ring-fenced. A total of 5,594 admissions were cross-referenced with 22,810 microbiology results. The morbidity, mortality and cost of managing MRSA-carrying patients, with a proximal fracture of the femur were compared, in relation to age, gender, American Society of Anaesthesiologists grade and residential status, with a group of matched controls who were MRSA-negative. In 2004, we screened 1795 of 1,796 elective admissions and MRSA was found in 23 (1.3%). We also screened 1,122 of 1,447 trauma admissions and 43 (3.8%) were carrying MRSA. All ten ward transfers were screened and four (40%) were carriers (all p < 0.001). The incidence of MRSA in trauma patients increased by 2.6% per week of inpatient stay (r = 0.97, p < 0.001). MRSA developed in 2.9% of trauma and 0.2% of elective patients during that admission (p < 0.001). The implementation of the MRSA policy reduced the incidence of MRSA infection by 56% in trauma patients (1.57% in 2003 (17 of 1,084) to 0.69% in 2004 (10 of 1,447), p = 0.035). Infection with MRSA in elective patients was reduced by 70% (0.56% in 2003 (7 of 1,257) to 0.17% in 2004 (3 of 1,806), p = 0.06). The cost of preventing one MRSA infection was 3,200 pounds. Although colonisation by MRSA did not affect the mortality rate, infection by MRSA more than doubled it. Patients with proximal fractures of the femur infected with MRSA remained in hospital for 50 extra days, had 19 more days of vancomycin treatment and 26 more days of vacuum-assisted closure therapy than the matched controls. These additional costs equated to 13,972 pounds per patient. From this experience we have been able to describe the epidemiology of MRSA, assess the impact of infection-control measures on MRSA infection rates and determine the morbidity, mortality and economic cost of MRSA carriage on trauma and elective orthopaedic wards.

Primary endoluminal stenting of transplant renal artery stenosis from cadaver and non-heart-beating donor kidneys

This study evaluated the efficacy of primary endovascular stenting in cases of transplant renal artery stenosis (TRAS) from cadaver and non-heart-beating donor kidneys. Patients with TRAS (n = 13) from a single-centre transplant population (n = 476) were treated by primary percutaneous angioplasty and endovascular stenting. The short-term efficacy of this intervention is demonstrated in terms of serum creatinine, glomerular filtration rate (GFR) biochemical, anti-hypertensive medications and mean arterial blood pressure control. Stenting for TRAS was performed in male (n = 10) and female (n = 3) recipients. The median age at transplantation was 55 yr (range 10-67 yr). Stenting occurred at a median duration of 410 d post-transplantation (range 84-5799 d). Mean serum creatinine (pre, 247 micromol/L; post, 214 micromol/L; p = 0.002), GFR (pre, 82.6 mL/min; post, 100.9 mL/min; p < 0.001), arterial blood pressure (pre, 104 mmHg; post, 97 mmHg; p = 0.036) and the number of anti-hypertensive medications required (pre, 3.4; post, 3.0; p = 0.002) showed significant improvement after post-endovascular therapy. There were no serious complications encountered. Primary endovascular stenting of TRAS produces a significant improvement in biochemical parameters of renal graft function and in blood pressure stability, with the benefit of low patient morbidity and single arterial puncture. Primary endoluminal stenting of TRAS is a safe and effective procedure for the treatment of TRAS.

Green fluorescent protein as a novel indicator of antimicrobial susceptibility in Aureobasidium pullulans

Presently there is no method available that allows noninvasive and real-time monitoring of fungal susceptibility to antimicrobial compounds. The green fluorescent protein (GFP) of the jellyfish Aequoria victoria was tested as a potential reporter molecule for this purpose. Aureobasidium pullulans was transformed to express cytosolic GFP using the vector pTEFEGFP (A. J. Vanden Wymelenberg, D. Cullen, R. N. Spear, B. Schoenike, and J. H. Andrews, BioTechniques 23:686-690, 1997). The transformed strain Ap1 gfp showed bright fluorescence that was amenable to quantification using fluorescence spectrophotometry. Fluorescence levels in Ap1 gfp blastospore suspensions were directly proportional to the number of viable cells determined by CFU plate counts (r(2) > 0.99). The relationship between cell viability and GFP fluorescence was investigated by adding a range of concentrations of each of the biocides sodium hypochlorite and 2-n-octylisothiozolin-3-one (OIT) to suspensions of Ap1 gfp blastospores (pH 5 buffer). These biocides each caused a rapid (< 25-min) loss of fluorescence of greater than 90% when used at concentrations of 150 microg of available chlorine ml(-1) and 500 microg ml(-1), respectively. Further, loss of GFP fluorescence from A. pullulans cells was highly correlated with a decrease in the number of viable cells (r(2) > 0.92). Losses of GFP fluorescence and cell viability were highly dependent on external pH; maximum losses of fluorescence and viability occurred at pH 4, while reduction of GFP fluorescence was absent at pH 8.0 and was associated with a lower reduction in viability. When A. pullulans was attached to the surface of plasticized poly(vinylchloride) containing 500 ppm of OIT, fluorescence decreased more slowly than in cell suspensions, with > 95% loss of fluorescence after 27 h. This technique should have broad applications in testing the susceptibility of A. pullulans and other fungal species to antimicrobial compounds.

Fungal colonization and biodeterioration of plasticized polyvinyl chloride

Significant substratum damage can occur when plasticized PVC (pPVC) is colonized by microorganisms. We investigated microbial colonization of pPVC in an in situ, longitudinal study. Pieces of pPVC containing the plasticizers dioctyl phthalate and dioctyl adipate (DOA) were exposed to the atmosphere for up to 2 years. Fungal and bacterial populations were quantified, and colonizing fungi were identified by rRNA gene sequencing and morphological characteristics. Aureobasidium pullulans was the principal colonizing fungus, establishing itself on the pPVC between 25 and 40 weeks of exposure. A group of yeasts and yeast-like fungi, including Rhodotorula aurantiaca and Kluyveromyces spp., established themselves on the pPVC much later (after 80 weeks of exposure). Numerically, these organisms dominated A. pullulans after 95 weeks, with a mean viable count +/- standard error of 1,000 +/- 200 yeast CFU cm(-2), compared to 390 +/- 50 A. pullulans CFU cm(-2). No bacterial colonization was observed. We also used in vitro tests to characterize the deteriogenic properties of fungi isolated from the pPVC. All strains of A. pullulans tested could grow with the intact pPVC formulation as the sole source of carbon, degrade the plasticizer DOA, produce extracellular esterase, and cause weight loss of the substratum during growth in vitro. In contrast, several yeast isolates could not grow on pPVC or degrade DOA. These results suggest that microbial succession may occur during the colonization of pPVC and that A. pullulans is critical to the establishment of a microbial community on pPVC.

Plasticizers increase adhesion of the deteriogenic fungus Aureobasidium pullulans to polyvinyl chloride

Initial adhesion of fungi to plasticized polyvinyl chloride (pPVC) may determine subsequent colonization and biodeterioration processes. The deteriogenic fungus Aureobasidium pullulans was used to investigate the physicochemical nature of adhesion to both unplasticized PVC (uPVC) and pPVC containing the plasticizers dioctyl phthalate (DOP) and dioctyl adipate (DOA). A quantitative adhesion assay using image analysis identified fundamental differences in the mechanism of adhesion of A. pullulans blastospores to these substrata. Adhesion to pPVC was greater than that to uPVC by a maximum of 280% after a 4-h incubation with 10(8) blastospores ml(-1). That plasticizers enhance adhesion to PVC was confirmed by incorporating a dispersion of both DOA and DOP into the blastospore suspension. Adhesion to uPVC was increased by up to 308% in the presence of the dispersed plasticizers. Hydrophobic interactions were found to dominate adhesion to uPVC because (i) a strong positive correlation was observed between substratum hydrophobicity (measured by using a dynamic contact angle analyzer) and adhesion to a range of unplasticized polymers including uPVC, and (ii) neither the pH nor the electrolyte concentration of the suspension buffer, both of which influence electrostatic interactions, affected adhesion to uPVC. In contrast, adhesion to pPVC is principally controlled by electrostatic interactions. Enhanced adhesion to pPVC occurred despite a relative reduction of 13 degrees in the water contact angle of pPVC compared to that of uPVC. Furthermore, adhesion to pPVC was strongly dependent on both the pH and electrolyte concentration of the suspension medium, reaching maximum levels at pH 8 and with an electrolyte concentration of 10 mM NaCl. Plasticization with DOP and DOA therefore increases adhesion of A. pullulans blastospores to pPVC through an interaction mediated by electrostatic forces.

An investigation of laser scanning techniques for quantifying changes in facial soft-tissue volume

This paper describes a laser scanning technique to measure accurately changes in facial volume. Three potential sources of error were identified: the registration algorithm, the inherent accuracy of the scanner, and the natural minute-to-minute variability of the human face. In experiments performed to discover the relative magnitude and significance of each source of error, the performance of the registration algorithm was found to be limited by the accuracy of the data, being 1.6 cc, on average, measured over the entire face of a plaster model. Scan-to-scan variability in the shape of the human face was measured at 3.3 cc on average. We conclude that laser scanning is a simple, non-invasive, accurate, and reproducible means of assessing changes in facial volume.

Expanding the nursing repertoire: the effect of massage on post-operative pain

An equivalent groups design with a treatment group of 19 patients and a control group of 20 patients was used to investigate the impact of massage therapy on patients' perceptions of post-operative pain. Data were analysed using analysis of covariance repeated measures (within subjects) design. Controlling for age, the results indicated that massage produced a significant reduction in patients' perceptions of pain over a 24 hour period. A linear positive relationship emerged between patients' age and the duration of the massage. The study indicates that further investigation of the potential for massage to reduce pain is warranted.

Effect of treatment of hyperthyroidism on renal function in cats

OBJECTIVE

To determine whether increases in BUN and serum creatinine (SCr) concentrations, which have been reported to develop after surgical bilateral thyroidectomy in hyperthyroid cats, also develop after treatment of hyperthyroidism with radioactive iodine and methimazole.

DESIGN

Prospective, clinical trial.

ANIMALS

58 hyperthyroid cats.

PROCEDURE

Urine specific gravity, SCr, BUN, and serum thyroxine (T4) concentrations were determined before and 30 and 90 days after treatment of hyperthyroidism with radioactive iodine, methimazole, or surgical bilateral thyroidectomy.

RESULTS

Mean SCr and BUN concentrations determined 30 and 90 days after treatment were significantly higher than those measured before treatment. Mean SCr, BUN, and T4 concentrations were not different among groups before treatment or 30 and 90 days after treatment.

CLINICAL IMPLICATIONS

Reduction of serum T4 concentrations after treatment of hyperthyroidism may result in azotemia in older cats with chronic renal disease. Treating azotemic hyperthyroid cats with methimazole until it can be determined whether correction of the hyperthyroid state will exacerbate the azotemia may be prudent.

A prospective study of isolation of Moraxella catarrhalis in a hospital during the winter months

Sputum samples submitted to the microbiology laboratory from general medical and respiratory wards were monitored for Moraxella catarrhalis on a prospective basis. All isolates were typed by restriction endonuclease typing. Nosocomial spread was found both by the clustering of cases and typing of isolates. Sampling of the environment of some cases was performed. Seven out of 37 samples revealed environmental contamination. Sampling for persistence of the organism in the environment was positive on one occasion out of 13. Evaluation of acquisition of M. catarrhalis in relation to length of stay showed that the average length of stay of a case with M. catarrhalis was considerably longer than average patient stay without M. catarrhalis. Four patients had two isolates available for typing. The type of M. catarrhalis was different on the second occasion to that on the first. Nosocomial spread of M. catarrhalis in the setting of general medical and respiratory wards was found to occur in the winter months.

A case of pseudoanaphylactic reaction to intramuscular procaine penicillin G (Hoigne's syndrome)

A personal record of a pseudoanaphylactic reaction to procaine penicillin G is presented, together with a brief discussion of the topic. Since procaine penicillin is widely used in Papua New Guinea the reaction may be more common than is generally realized. The reaction is not a true anaphylaxis and is probably caused by the procaine component after inadvertent intravenous injection of the drug.

Anxiety and unrealistic optimism

Substantial evidence suggest that people tend to be unrealistically optimistic that positive events will happen to them and that negative events will not. However, recent research indicates that under certain conditions they may be unrealistically pessimistic. Variations in the levels of optimism and pessimism experienced towards events are generally given cognitive explanations. A relation between optimism and pessimism and anxiety, a variable related to emotion as well as cognition, was investigated in the present study. An inverse correlation was found between how anxious female students in England felt about certain negative events and how unrealistically optimistic they were about the occurrence of those events. It was concluded that the degree of anxiety experienced toward a negative event may affect the level of unrealistic optimism or pessimism toward it.

Geriatric rehabilitation: a family practice approach

Geriatric patients require rehabilitative measures that restore function and prevent further loss, with the goal of preserving independence. Assessment of functional ability and problems contributing to the disability (there are frequently more than one in elderly patients) help to make realistic goals for treatment. Functional scales provide rational evaluation of baseline status, progress made during treatment, and when remission has occurred.

Magnesium chloride as an anaesthetic for cephalopods

Magnesium chloride is an effective anaesthetic and narcotizing agent for cephalopod molluscs. Individuals belonging to five genera (decapod and octopod) were anaesthetized and subsequently revived at temperatures ranging from 13 to 22 degrees C. At no stage of anaesthesia does MgCl2 appear to cause any trauma. There is evidence that MgCl2 acts centrally on the nervous system to induce anaesthesia. This salt, cheap, readily available and convenient to use, is recommended over urethane or ethanol as a suitable anaesthetic or narcotic for use with cephalopods.

Magnesium chloride as an anaesthetic for cephalopods

Magnesium chloride is an effective anaesthetic and narcotizing agent for cephalopod molluscs. Individuals belonging to five genera (decapod and octopod) were anaesthetized and subsequently revived at temperatures ranging from 13 to 22 degrees C. At no stage of anaesthesia does MgCl2 appear to cause any trauma. There is evidence that MgCl2 acts centrally on the nervous system to induce anaesthesia. This salt, cheap, readily available and convenient to use, is recommended over urethane or ethanol as a suitable anaesthetic or narcotic for use with cephalopods.