Informed consent for endoscopic procedures: European Society of Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ESGE) Position Statement

All endoscopic procedures are invasive and carry risk. Accordingly, all endoscopists should involve the patient in the decision-making process about the most appropriate endoscopic procedure for that individual, in keeping with a patient's right to self-determination and autonomy. Recognition of this has led to detailed guidelines on informed consent for endoscopy in some countries, but in many no such guidance exists; this may lead to variations in care and exposure to risk of litigation. In this document, the European Society of Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ESGE) sets out a series of statements that cover best practice in informed consent for endoscopy. These statements should be seen as a minimum standard of practice, but practitioners must be aware of and adhere to the law in their own country. 1:  Patients should give informed consent for all gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures for which they have capacity to do so. 2:  The healthcare professional seeking consent for an endoscopic procedure should ensure that the patient has the capacity to consent to that procedure. 3:  For patients who lack capacity, healthcare personnel should at all times try to engage with people close to the patient, such as family, friends, or caregivers, to achieve consensus on the appropriateness of performing the procedure. 4:  Where a patient lacks capacity to provide informed consent, the best interest decision should be clearly documented in the medical record. This should include information about the capacity assessment, reason(s) that the decision cannot be delayed for capacity recovery (or if recovery is not expected), who has been consulted, and where relevant the form of authority for the decision. 5:  There should be a systematic and transparent disclosure of the expected benefits and harms that may reasonably affect patient choice on whether or not to undergo any diagnostic or interventional endoscopic procedure. Information about possible alternatives, as well as the consequences of doing nothing, should also be provided when relevant. 6:  The information provided on the benefit and harms of an endoscopic procedure should be adapted to the procedure and patient-specific risk factors, and the preferences of the patient should be central to the consent process. 7:  The consent discussion should be undertaken by an individual who is familiar with the procedure and its risks, and is able to discuss these in the context of the individual patient. 8:  Patients should confirm consent to an endoscopic procedure in a private, unrushed, and non-coercive environment. 9:  If a patient requests that an endoscopic procedure be discontinued, the procedure should be paused and the patient's capacity for decision making assessed. If a competent patient continues to object to the procedure, or if a conclusive determination of capacity is not feasible, the examination should be terminated as soon as it is safe to do so. 10: Informed consent should be sufficiently detailed to cover all findings that can be reasonably anticipated during an endoscopic examination. The scope of this consent should not be expanded, nor a patient's implicit consent for additional interventions assumed, unless failure to proceed with such interventions would result in immediate and predictable harm to the patient.

Curriculum for training in endoscopic mucosal resection in the colon: European Society of Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ESGE) Position Statement

Endoscopic mucosal resection (EMR) is the standard of care for the complete removal of large (≥ 10 mm) nonpedunculated colorectal polyps (LNPCPs). Increased detection of LNPCPs owing to screening colonoscopy, plus high observed rates of incomplete resection and need for surgery call for a standardized approach to training in EMR. 1 : Trainees in EMR should have achieved basic competence in diagnostic colonoscopy, < 10-mm polypectomy, pedunculated polypectomy, and common methods of gastrointestinal endoscopic hemostasis. The role of formal training courses is emphasized. Training may then commence in vivo under the direct supervision of a trainer. 2 : Endoscopy units training endoscopists in EMR should have specific processes in place to support and facilitate training. 3: A trained EMR practitioner should have mastered theoretical knowledge including how to assess an LNPCP for risk of submucosal invasion, how to interpret the potential difficulty of a particular EMR procedure, how to decide whether to remove a particular LNPCP en bloc or piecemeal, whether the risks of electrosurgical energy can be avoided for a particular LNPCP, the different devices required for EMR, management of adverse events, and interpretation of reports provided by histopathologists. 4: Trained EMR practitioners should be familiar with the patient consent process for EMR. 5: The development of endoscopic non-technical skills (ENTS) and team interaction are important for trainees in EMR. 6: Differences in recommended technique exist between EMR performed with and without electrosurgical energy. Common to both is a standardized technique based upon dynamic injection, controlled and precise snare placement, safety checks prior to the application of tissue transection (cold snare) or electrosurgical energy (hot snare), and interpretation of the post-EMR resection defect. 7: A trained EMR practitioner must be able to manage adverse events associated with EMR including intraprocedural bleeding and perforation, and post-procedural bleeding. Delayed perforation should be avoided by correct interpretation of the post-EMR defect and treatment of deep mural injury. 8: A trained EMR practitioner must be able to communicate EMR procedural findings to patients and provide them with a plan in case of adverse events after discharge and a follow-up plan. 9: A trained EMR practitioner must be able to detect and interrogate a post-endoscopic resection scar for residual or recurrent adenoma and apply treatment if necessary. 10: Prior to independent practice, a minimum of 30 EMR procedures should be performed, culminating in a trainer-guided assessment of competency using a validated assessment tool, taking account of procedural difficulty (e. g. using the SMSA polyp score). 11: Trained practitioners should log their key performance indicators (KPIs) of polypectomy during independent practice. A guide for target KPIs is provided in this document.

Curriculum for bariatric endoscopy and endoscopic treatment of the complications of bariatric surgery: European Society of Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ESGE) Position Statement

Obesity is a chronic, relapsing, degenerative, multifactorial disease that is associated with many co-morbidities. The global increasing burden of obesity has led to calls for an urgent need for additional treatment options. Given the rapid expansion of bariatric endoscopy and bariatric surgery across Europe, the European Society of Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ESGE) has recognized the need to formalize and enhance training in bariatric endoscopy and the endoscopic treatment of bariatric surgical adverse events. This manuscript represents the outcome of a formal Delphi process resulting in an official Position Statement of the ESGE and provides a framework to develop and maintain skills in bariatric endoscopy and the endoscopic treatment of bariatric surgical adverse events. This curriculum is set out in terms of the prerequisites prior to training, minimum number of procedures, the steps for training and quality of training, and how competence should be defined and evidenced before independent practice. 1: ESGE recommends that every endoscopist should have achieved competence in upper gastrointestinal endoscopy before commencing training in bariatric endoscopy and the endoscopic treatment of bariatric surgical adverse events. 2: Trainees in bariatric endoscopy and the endoscopic treatment of the complications of bariatric surgery should have basic knowledge of the definition, classification, and social impact of obesity, its pathophysiology, and its related co-morbidities. The recognition and management of gastrointestinal diseases that are more common in patients with obesity, along with participation in multidisciplinary teams where obese patients are evaluated, are mandatory. 3 : ESGE recommends that competency in bariatric endoscopy and the endoscopic treatment of the complications of bariatric surgery can be learned by attending validated training courses on simulators initially, structured training courses, and then hands-on training in tertiary referral centers.

Reducing the environmental footprint of gastrointestinal endoscopy: European Society of Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ESGE) and European Society of Gastroenterology and Endoscopy Nurses and Associates (ESGENA) Position Statement

Climate change and the destruction of ecosystems by human activities are among the greatest challenges of the 21st century and require urgent action. Health care activities significantly contribute to the emission of greenhouse gases and waste production, with gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy being one of the largest contributors. This Position Statement aims to raise awareness of the ecological footprint of GI endoscopy and provides guidance to reduce its environmental impact. The European Society of Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ESGE) and the European Society of Gastroenterology and Endoscopy Nurses and Associates (ESGENA) outline suggestions and recommendations for health care providers, patients, governments, and industry. MAIN STATEMENTS 1: GI endoscopy is a resource-intensive activity with a significant yet poorly assessed environmental impact. 2: ESGE-ESGENA recommend adopting immediate actions to reduce the environmental impact of GI endoscopy. 3: ESGE-ESGENA recommend adherence to guidelines and implementation of audit strategies on the appropriateness of GI endoscopy to avoid the environmental impact of unnecessary procedures. 4: ESGE-ESGENA recommend the embedding of reduce, reuse, and recycle programs in the GI endoscopy unit. 5: ESGE-ESGENA suggest that there is an urgent need to reassess and reduce the environmental and economic impact of single-use GI endoscopic devices. 6: ESGE-ESGENA suggest against routine use of single-use GI endoscopes. However, their use could be considered in highly selected patients on a case-by-case basis. 7: ESGE-ESGENA recommend inclusion of sustainability in the training curricula of GI endoscopy and as a quality domain. 8: ESGE-ESGENA recommend conducting high quality research to quantify and minimize the environmental impact of GI endoscopy. 9: ESGE-ESGENA recommend that GI endoscopy companies assess, disclose, and audit the environmental impact of their value chain. 10:  ESGE-ESGENA recommend that GI endoscopy should become a net-zero greenhouse gas emissions practice by 2050.

Assessment of the role of the Edinburgh dysphagia score in referral triage in a national service evaluation of the urgent suspected upper gastrointestinal cancer pathway

BACKGROUND

The British Society of Gastroenterology has recommended the Edinburgh Dysphagia Score (EDS) to risk-stratify dysphagia referrals during the endoscopy COVID recovery phase.

AIMS

External validation of the diagnostic accuracy of EDS and exploration of potential changes to improve its diagnostic performance.

METHODS

A prospective multicentre study of consecutive patients referred with dysphagia on an urgent suspected upper gastrointestinal (UGI) cancer pathway between May 2020 and February 2021. The sensitivity and negative predictive value (NPV) of EDS were calculated. Variables associated with UGI cancer were identified by forward stepwise logistic regression and a modified Cancer Dysphagia Score (CDS) developed.

RESULTS

1301 patients were included from 19 endoscopy providers; 43% male; median age 62 (IQR 51-73) years. 91 (7%) UGI cancers were diagnosed, including 80 oesophageal, 10 gastric and one duodenal cancer. An EDS ≥3.5 had a sensitivity of 96.7 (95% CI 90.7-99.3)% and an NPV of 99.3 (97.8-99.8)%. Age, male sex, progressive dysphagia and unintentional weight loss >3 kg were positively associated and acid reflux and localisation to the neck were negatively associated with UGI cancer. Dysphagia duration <6 months utilised in EDS was replaced with progressive dysphagia in CDS. CDS ≥5.5 had a sensitivity of 97.8 (92.3-99.7)% and NPV of 99.5 (98.1-99.9)%. Area under receiver operating curve was 0.83 for CDS, compared to 0.81 for EDS.

CONCLUSIONS

In a national cohort, the EDS has high sensitivity and NPV as a triage tool for UGI cancer. The CDS offers even higher diagnostic accuracy. The EDS or CDS should be incorporated into the urgent suspected UGI cancer pathway.

The Evolution of Device-Assisted Enteroscopy: From Sonde Enteroscopy to Motorized Spiral Enteroscopy

The introduction of capsule endoscopy in 2001 opened the last "black box" of the gastrointestinal tract enabling complete visualization of the small bowel. Since then, numerous new developments in the field of deep enteroscopy have emerged expanding the diagnostic and therapeutic armamentarium against small bowel diseases. The ability to achieve total enteroscopy and visualize the entire small bowel remains the holy grail in enteroscopy. Our journey in the small bowel started historically with sonde type enteroscopy and ropeway enteroscopy. Currently, double-balloon enteroscopy, single-balloon enteroscopy, and spiral enteroscopy are available in clinical practice. Recently, a novel motorized enteroscope has been described with the potential to shorten procedure time and allow for total enteroscopy in one session. In this review, we will present an overview of the currently available techniques, indications, diagnostic yield, and complications of device-assisted enteroscopy.

Diagnosis and management of acute lower gastrointestinal bleeding: European Society of Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ESGE) Guideline

1: ESGE recommends that the initial assessment of patients presenting with acute lower gastrointestinal bleeding should include: a history of co-morbidities and medications that promote bleeding; hemodynamic parameters; physical examination (including digital rectal examination); and laboratory markers. A risk score can be used to aid, but should not replace, clinician judgment.Strong recommendation, low quality evidence. 2 : ESGE recommends that, in patients presenting with a self-limited bleed and no adverse clinical features, an Oakland score of ≤ 8 points can be used to guide the clinician decision to discharge the patient for outpatient investigation.Strong recommendation, moderate quality evidence. 3 : ESGE recommends, in hemodynamically stable patients with acute lower gastrointestinal bleeding and no history of cardiovascular disease, a restrictive red blood cell transfusion strategy, with a hemoglobin threshold of ≤ 7 g/dL prompting red blood cell transfusion. A post-transfusion target hemoglobin concentration of 7-9 g/dL is desirable.Strong recommendation, low quality evidence. 4 : ESGE recommends, in hemodynamically stable patients with acute lower gastrointestinal bleeding and a history of acute or chronic cardiovascular disease, a more liberal red blood cell transfusion strategy, with a hemoglobin threshold of ≤ 8 g/dL prompting red blood cell transfusion. A post-transfusion target hemoglobin concentration of ≥ 10 g/dL is desirable.Strong recommendation, low quality evidence. 5: ESGE recommends that, in patients with major acute lower gastrointestinal bleeding, colonoscopy should be performed sometime during their hospital stay because there is no high quality evidence that early colonoscopy influences patient outcomes.Strong recommendation, low quality of evidence. 6 : ESGE recommends that patients with hemodynamic instability and suspected ongoing bleeding undergo computed tomography angiography before endoscopic or radiologic treatment to locate the site of bleeding.Strong recommendation, low quality evidence. 7 : ESGE recommends withholding vitamin K antagonists in patients with major lower gastrointestinal bleeding and correcting their coagulopathy according to the severity of bleeding and their thrombotic risk. In patients with hemodynamic instability, we recommend administering intravenous vitamin K and four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC), or fresh frozen plasma if PCC is not available.Strong recommendation, low quality evidence. 8 : ESGE recommends temporarily withholding direct oral anticoagulants at presentation in patients with major lower gastrointestinal bleeding.Strong recommendation, low quality evidence. 9: ESGE does not recommend withholding aspirin in patients taking low dose aspirin for secondary cardiovascular prevention. If withheld, low dose aspirin should be resumed, preferably within 5 days or even earlier if hemostasis is achieved or there is no further evidence of bleeding.Strong recommendation, moderate quality evidence. 10: ESGE does not recommend routinely discontinuing dual antiplatelet therapy (low dose aspirin and a P2Y12 receptor antagonist) before cardiology consultation. Continuation of the aspirin is recommended, whereas the P2Y12 receptor antagonist can be continued or temporarily interrupted according to the severity of bleeding and the ischemic risk. If interrupted, the P2Y12 receptor antagonist should be restarted within 5 days, if still indicated.Strong recommendation, low quality evidence.

Ivermectin for Prevention and Treatment of COVID-19 Infection: A Systematic Review, Meta-analysis, and Trial Sequential Analysis to Inform Clinical Guidelines

BACKGROUND

Repurposed medicines may have a role against the SARS-CoV-2 virus. The antiparasitic ivermectin, with antiviral and anti-inflammatory properties, has now been tested in numerous clinical trials.

AREAS OF UNCERTAINTY

We assessed the efficacy of ivermectin treatment in reducing mortality, in secondary outcomes, and in chemoprophylaxis, among people with, or at high risk of, COVID-19 infection.

DATA SOURCES

We searched bibliographic databases up to April 25, 2021. Two review authors sifted for studies, extracted data, and assessed risk of bias. Meta-analyses were conducted and certainty of the evidence was assessed using the GRADE approach and additionally in trial sequential analyses for mortality. Twenty-four randomized controlled trials involving 3406 participants met review inclusion.

THERAPEUTIC ADVANCES

Meta-analysis of 15 trials found that ivermectin reduced risk of death compared with no ivermectin (average risk ratio 0.38, 95% confidence interval 0.19-0.73; n = 2438; I2 = 49%; moderate-certainty evidence). This result was confirmed in a trial sequential analysis using the same DerSimonian-Laird method that underpinned the unadjusted analysis. This was also robust against a trial sequential analysis using the Biggerstaff-Tweedie method. Low-certainty evidence found that ivermectin prophylaxis reduced COVID-19 infection by an average 86% (95% confidence interval 79%-91%). Secondary outcomes provided less certain evidence. Low-certainty evidence suggested that there may be no benefit with ivermectin for "need for mechanical ventilation," whereas effect estimates for "improvement" and "deterioration" clearly favored ivermectin use. Severe adverse events were rare among treatment trials and evidence of no difference was assessed as low certainty. Evidence on other secondary outcomes was very low certainty.

CONCLUSIONS

Moderate-certainty evidence finds that large reductions in COVID-19 deaths are possible using ivermectin. Using ivermectin early in the clinical course may reduce numbers progressing to severe disease. The apparent safety and low cost suggest that ivermectin is likely to have a significant impact on the SARS-CoV-2 pandemic globally.

Ivermectin for Prevention and Treatment of COVID-19 Infection: A Systematic Review, Meta-analysis, and Trial Sequential Analysis to Inform Clinical Guidelines

BACKGROUND

Repurposed medicines may have a role against the SARS-CoV-2 virus. The antiparasitic ivermectin, with antiviral and anti-inflammatory properties, has now been tested in numerous clinical trials.

AREAS OF UNCERTAINTY

We assessed the efficacy of ivermectin treatment in reducing mortality, in secondary outcomes, and in chemoprophylaxis, among people with, or at high risk of, COVID-19 infection.

DATA SOURCES

We searched bibliographic databases up to April 25, 2021. Two review authors sifted for studies, extracted data, and assessed risk of bias. Meta-analyses were conducted and certainty of the evidence was assessed using the GRADE approach and additionally in trial sequential analyses for mortality. Twenty-four randomized controlled trials involving 3406 participants met review inclusion.

THERAPEUTIC ADVANCES

Meta-analysis of 15 trials found that ivermectin reduced risk of death compared with no ivermectin (average risk ratio 0.38, 95% confidence interval 0.19-0.73; n = 2438; I2 = 49%; moderate-certainty evidence). This result was confirmed in a trial sequential analysis using the same DerSimonian-Laird method that underpinned the unadjusted analysis. This was also robust against a trial sequential analysis using the Biggerstaff-Tweedie method. Low-certainty evidence found that ivermectin prophylaxis reduced COVID-19 infection by an average 86% (95% confidence interval 79%-91%). Secondary outcomes provided less certain evidence. Low-certainty evidence suggested that there may be no benefit with ivermectin for "need for mechanical ventilation," whereas effect estimates for "improvement" and "deterioration" clearly favored ivermectin use. Severe adverse events were rare among treatment trials and evidence of no difference was assessed as low certainty. Evidence on other secondary outcomes was very low certainty.

CONCLUSIONS

Moderate-certainty evidence finds that large reductions in COVID-19 deaths are possible using ivermectin. Using ivermectin early in the clinical course may reduce numbers progressing to severe disease. The apparent safety and low cost suggest that ivermectin is likely to have a significant impact on the SARS-CoV-2 pandemic globally.

Stress and its causes in UK gastroenterologists: results of a national survey by the British Society of Gastroenterology

AIM

Evaluation of stress and its causes in UK gastroenterologists.

DESIGN

Questionnaire emailed to all 1932 medical members of the British Society of Gastroenterology.

RESULTS

Of 567 respondents (29%), 107 (20%) graded their stress level as 4 or 5 out of 5. Stress levels correlated inversely with self-reported happiness levels (r=-0.60; p<0.001) and with hours slept per night (r=-0.23; p<0.01) and correlated directly with % time off-duty thinking about work (r=0.46; p<0001) and with proportion of nights with broken sleep (r=0.30; p<0.01). Due to stress over the past year, 21% of respondents reported one of the following: consulting their general practitioner (7%), attending occupational health (5%), taking planned time off (7%), taking anxiolytics/antidepressants (6%) and considering suicide (5.5%). These respondents had higher stress and lower happiness levels than the remainder. Stress levels were higher in women and in those working full time but had no other demographic associations.The main causes of stress were excessive clinical work (ranked highest by 47% and most commonly patient-related administration), working conditions beyond control (ranked highest by 15% and most commonly inadequate information technology systems, workspace and secretarial staff) and conflict (ranked highest by 9%). Of eight potential factors, happiness with work showed the closest associations with overall happiness (positive) and overall stress (negative) levels. Talking to someone at work about stress was ranked difficult or impossible by 35%. The highest ranked suggested solutions were relief from some duties and mentoring.

CONCLUSIONS

Stress is common and has objective correlates in UK gastroenterologists. The main cause is excessive workload.

Natural history of asymptomatic bile duct stones at time of cholecystectomy

OBJECTIVES

There is little data on the natural history of asymptomatic bile duct stones and hence there is uncertainty on the management of asymptomatic bile duct stones discovered incidentally at the time of laparoscopic cholecystectomy. We retrospectively reviewed a group of patients who had previously underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy, but who did not have a pre-operative suspicion of intra-ductal stones, to determine if any biliary complications had subsequently developed. A group of patients who had no pre-operative suspicion of intra-ductal stones, but routinely underwent intraoperative cholangiogram (IOC) at time of cholecystectomy, served as the control group.

METHODS

A telephone questionnaire was completed by each patient's family practitioner in 59 of 79 (75%) patients who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. In the remaining 20 patients additional information was obtained from hospital records and from the central services agency (CSA). These patients had no pre-operative suspicion of bile duct stones and therefore did not undergo an IOC or ERCP. The control group (73 patients) had no pre-operative suspicion of bile duct stones but had a routine IOC performed to define the biliary anatomy.

RESULTS

59 patients were followed up for an average of 57 months (range 30-78 months) after laparoscopic cholecystectomy. None of these patients developed pancreatitis, jaundice, deranged liver function tests (LFT's), or required ERCP or other biliary intervention. In the additional 20 patients where no information was available from the family practitioner, 11 patients had follow up appointments with no documentation of biliary complications or abnormal LFT's. 19 of 20 patients were traceable through the CSA and were all alive. Only 1 patient was untraceable and therefore unknown if biliary complications had developed. In the control group, 4 of 73 (6%) patients had intraductal stones detected and extracted. Thus the prevalence of asymptomatic bile duct stones during the time of cholecystectomy in our population was 6%.

CONCLUSIONS

Asymptomatic bile duct stones discovered at the time of cholecystectomy do not appear to cause any biliary complications over a 5-year follow up. Incidental bile duct stones found in patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy may not need to be removed.

A comparison of antibodies to tissue transglutaminase with conventional serological tests in the diagnosis of coeliac disease

BACKGROUND

Tissue transglutaminase is now recognized as the autoantigen for antiendomysial antibodies. Antibodies to tissue transglutaminase have been proposed as a valuable test for coeliac disease.

OBJECTIVE

To determine the value of antibodies to tissue transglutaminase in the diagnosis of coeliac disease in our outpatient population.

METHODS

Patients who underwent serological tests for coeliac disease during the first 18 months of the tissue transglutaminase antibody assay were retrospectively identified from the regional serology laboratory database. Patients' symptoms were noted, along with serological results and duodenal histology in those patients who underwent duodenal biopsy. RESULTS In total, 586 patients were identified as having been serologically tested for coeliac disease, of whom 92 patients (33 men; mean age 51.7 years) had been followed up with duodenal biopsies. Of these 92 patients, 29 (31%; 14 men; mean age 52.5 years) had histological features of coeliac disease. The 63 patients with normal histology (19 men; mean age 51.8 years) acted as controls. Weight loss was more frequent in coeliac disease patients compared to controls (7 vs 5; P = 0.04) whereas the frequency of anaemia (P = 0.85) and diarrhoea (P = 0.74) did not differ significantly between the two groups. The sensitivity and specificity of tissue transglutaminase antibodies (86%; 84%) were compared to those for antiendomysial antibodies (90%; 98%) and antigliadin antibodies (76%; 79%).

CONCLUSIONS

The diagnostic value of tissue transglutaminase antibodies was intermediate between that of antiendomysial antibodies and antigliadin antibodies. However, duodenal biopsy remains the gold standard diagnostic test for coeliac disease.

Radiation doses to patients during ERCP

BACKGROUND

There is a scarcity of data regarding the radiation dose and associated risks to patients during ERCP. Dose area product (DAP) measurements can be used to estimate an effective dose (ED) to patients undergoing ERCP. This measure allows radiation risk associated with such procedures to be quantified. The aim of this study was to evaluate the ED to patients undergoing ERCP.

METHODS

A DAP meter was fitted to the x-ray tube before each ERCP. DAP reading (Gy-cm(2)), fluoroscopy time, average screening kVp, number of films, and kVp per film were recorded. Mean ED was estimated by using DAP readings and Monte Carlo computer software to model radiation exposure conditions.

RESULTS

Data were recorded on 20 subjects. Average DAP was 13.5 Gy-cm(2) (6.8-23.9) for diagnostic and 66.8 Gy-cm(2) (28.7-108.5) for therapeutic ERCP (p < 0.05). Average fluoroscopy time was 2.3 minutes (1.1-5.3) for diagnostic and 10.5 minutes (5.9-16.6) for therapeutic ERCP (p < 0.05). DAP showed a linear relationship with fluoroscopy time (R(2) = 0.928). Mean number of diagnostic and therapeutic films was 2.8 and 3.7, respectively. Fluoroscopic exposure represented 69% of the DAP for diagnostic ERCP and 90% of the DAP for therapeutic ERCP. Average ED was 3.1 mSv for diagnostic and 12.4 mSv for therapeutic ERCP.

CONCLUSIONS

Therapeutic ERCP is associated with significantly higher radiation exposure than diagnostic ERCP. ED in therapeutic ERCP is a result largely of fluoroscopy time as opposed to number of films.

Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomies: attitudes of general practitioners and how management may be improved

Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) has replaced surgical gastrostomy in patients requiring long-term enteral nutrition. Increasing numbers of patients are being referred for PEG placement. Concern has been raised about patient selection and subsequent follow-up of these patients in the community. We report the views of Northern Ireland GPs to PEGs and how management may be improved.

Pancreatic duct stents for "obstructive type" pain in pancreatic malignancy

OBJECTIVE

Obstruction of the main pancreatic duct from malignancy with secondary ductal hypertension may be an important contributor to pain. The aim of our study was to determine the efficacy and safety of pancreatic stent placement for patients with "obstructive" pain due to pancreatic malignancy.

METHODS

Pancreatic duct stents were placed in 10 consecutive patients with malignant pancreatic duct obstruction and abdominal pain. Seven patients had "obstructive" type pain and three had chronic unremitting pain. Nine had primary pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma and one had metastatic melanoma. There were eight women and two men. Mean age was 61 yr (range, 47-80 yr). All patients had dominant main pancreatic duct strictures with proximal dilation. Tumors were unresectable. All patients took potent analgesics before endoscopic stent therapy. Polyethylene pancreatic stents, 5- and 7-French, were successfully placed in seven patients, and self-expanding metallic stents were successfully placed in three patients.

RESULTS

There were no procedure-related complications. One patient required a single repeat examination to replace a migrated stent. Seven patients (75%) experienced a reduction in pain. Analgesia was no longer required in five (50%). Three patients who did not improve had chronic pain rather than "obstructive" pain.

CONCLUSIONS

Pancreatic stent placement for patients with "obstructive" pain secondary to a malignant pancreatic duct stricture appears to be safe and effective. It should be considered as a therapeutic option in these patients. It does not seem to be effective for chronic unremitting pain.

A prospective randomised trial of a "test and treat" policy versus endoscopy based management in young Helicobacter pylori positive patients with ulcer-like dyspepsia, referred to a hospital clinic

BACKGROUND

Management of dyspepsia remains a controversial area. Although the European Helicobacter pylori study group has advised empirical eradication therapy without oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) in young H pylori positive dyspeptic patients who do not exhibit alarm symptoms, this strategy has not been subjected to clinical trial.

AIMS

To compare a "test and treat" eradication policy against management by OGD.

PATIENTS

Consecutive subjects were prospectively recruited from open access OGD and outpatient referrals.

METHODS

H pylori status was assessed using the carbon-13 urea breath test. H pylori positive patients were randomised to either empirical eradication or OGD. Symptoms and quality of life scores were assessed at baseline and subsequent reviews over a 12 month period.

RESULTS

A total of 104 H pylori positive patients aged under 45 years were recruited. Fifty two were randomised to receive empirical eradication therapy and 52 to OGD. Results were analysed using an intention to treat policy. Dyspepsia scores significantly improved in both groups over 12 months compared with baseline; however, dyspepsia scores were significantly better in the empirical eradication group. Quality of life showed significant improvements in both groups at 12 months; however, physical role functioning was significantly improved in the empirical eradication group. Fourteen (27%) in the empirical eradication group subsequently proceeded to OGD because of no improvement in dyspepsia.

CONCLUSIONS

This randomised study strongly supports the use of empirical H pylori eradication in patients referred to secondary practice; it is estimated that 73% of OGDs in this group would have been avoided with no detriment to clinical outcome.

Features that may predict hospital admission following outpatient therapeutic ERCP

BACKGROUND

Some patients are admitted following outpatient therapeutic ERCP because of adverse events. This study aimed to identify factors that may predict such admissions.

METHODS

We prospectively studied admissions for post-ERCP adverse events in 415 consecutive patients undergoing outpatient therapeutic ERCP. Potentially relevant predictors of admission were assessed by univariate analysis and in case of significance included in a multivariate analysis.

RESULTS

Admission was necessary in 41 patients (9.9%) because of complications and in 63 (15.2%) for observation of adverse events that did not progress to definable complications. Potential predictors of admission were evaluated comparing patients who required more than an overnight admission (n = 63) with those who did not (n = 352). Multivariate analysis identified three factors that were significant: pain during the procedure (odds ratio 3.8: 95% CI [1.8, 7.9]), history of pancreatitis (odds ratio 2.3: 95% CI [1.1, 4.7]) and performance of sphincterotomy (odds ratio 2.2: 95% CI [1.1, 4.3]). The presence of all these features was associated with a 66.7% likelihood of admission, whereas the absence of pain during the procedure, history of pancreatitis and performance of sphincterotomy made admission likely in only 11.0%, 9.8% and 10.7%, respectively, of the cases.

CONCLUSIONS

The occurrence of pain during the procedure, a history of pancreatitis and the performance of sphincterotomy were independent predictors of admission following outpatient therapeutic ERCP.

A prospective study of the management of the young Helicobacter pylori negative dyspeptic patient--can gastroscopies be saved in clinical practice?

BACKGROUND

Helicobacter pylori status has been suggested as a means of selecting young dyspeptic patients for gastroscopy as patients who are H. pylori negative and do not exhibit alarm symptoms or ingest non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication have a low risk of serious organic disease.

AIM

To determine if young patients with ulcer-like dyspepsia and found to be H. pylori negative on non-invasive testing could be reassured by this knowledge and not proceed to gastroscopy.

PATIENTS

One hundred and sixty-one consecutive attendees aged 45 years or less with a presenting complaint of epigastric pain or discomfort were prospectively recruited from open access gastroscopy referrals and gastroenterology clinics.

METHODS

Patients who were H. pylori negative on 13-carbon urea breath test were reassured of the likelihood of a normal gastroscopy, given lifestyle advice and also advised to take symptomatic therapy as required. Patients were reviewed at 6 weeks, 3 months and 6 months when symptoms and quality of life were reassessed. Patients proceeded to gastroscopy if at any review their dyspepsia score stayed the same or worsened.

RESULTS

Fifty-five H. pylori negative patients were recruited (30 male, mean age 31 years), two patients did not attend subsequent review. Thirty-two (58%) came to gastroscopy. Endoscopic diagnoses included 25 which were normal, three with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, three with peptic ulcer disease and one with gastric erosions. Dyspepsia and quality of life scores showed significant improvement over 6 months.

CONCLUSIONS

This management strategy resulted in a 42% reduction in gastroscopies in H. pylori negative patients. Whilst the majority of patients endoscoped had normal findings, seven patients (22%) had pathology. Overall there were significant improvements in dyspepsia and quality of life at 6 month follow-up.

Management of occluded biliary Wallstents

BACKGROUND

Wallstents (Schneider Stent, Inc., USA) used for the palliation of malignant biliary strictures, although associated with prolonged patency, can occlude. There is no consensus regarding the optimal management of Wallstent occlusion.

AIMS

To evaluate the efficacy of different endoscopic methods for managing biliary Wallstent occlusion.

METHODS

A multicentre retrospective study of patients managed for a biliary Wallstent occlusion.

RESULTS

Data were available for 38 patients with 44 Wallstent occlusions, all of which had initial endoscopic management. Twenty four patients had died and 14 were alive after a median follow up of 231 (30-1095) days following Wallstent occlusion. Occlusions were managed by insertion of another Wallstent in 19, insertion of a plastic stent in 20, and mechanical cleaning in five. Endoscopic management was successful in 43 (98%). Following management of the occlusion, bilirubin decreased from 6.0 (0.5-34.3) to 2.1 (0.2-27.7) mg/100 ml (p < 0.05). No complications occurred. The median duration of second stent patency was 75 days (95% confidence interval 43 to 107) after insertion of another Wallstent, 90 days (71 to 109) after insertion of a plastic stent, and 34 days (30 to 38) after mechanical cleaning (NS). The respective median survivals were 70 days (22-118), 98 days (54-142), and 34 days (30-380) (NS). Incremental cost effective analysis showed that plastic stent insertion is the most cost effective option.

CONCLUSION

Although all three methods are equally effective in managing an occluded Wallstent, the most cost effective method appears to be plastic stent insertion.

Effect of Helicobacter pylori eradication on antral somatostatin cell density in humans

OBJECTIVE

As Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with an elevation in plasma gastrin with normal antral gastrin cell counts, an abnormality in antral somatostatin cells may be associated with the infection. We evaluated the effect of eradication of H. pylori on antral somatostatin cell density in the light of antral gastrin cell density and plasma gastrin levels.

DESIGN

Prospective study.

METHODS

Of 25 dyspeptic patients with H. pylori infection, nine had H. pylori successfully eradicated and the rest remained infected. Antral biopsies were immunostained for somatostatin cells and plasma gastrin measured before and 4 weeks after H. pylori eradication therapy. Ten other dyspeptic patients without H. pylori infection had their somatostatin cell density evaluated as controls.

RESULTS

Somatostatin cell density in the patients without H. pylori infection at the outset was significantly higher than that in the patients with H. pylori infection at the outset (median 57 [18-83] vs. 37 [6-80] cells/mm) respectively (P <0.05). Somatostatin cell density increased after H. pylori eradication (before treatment, median 50 [15-72]; after treatment 71 [39-107] cells/mm) (P < 0.05) but was unchanged with persistent H. pylori infection. Plasma gastrin decreased after H. pylori eradication (before treatment, median 70 [45-100]; after treatment 30 [10-100] ng/l) (P < 0.05) but was unchanged with persistent H. pylori infection.

CONCLUSIONS

Following eradication of H. pylori, there is an increase in somatostatin cell density with a fall in plasma gastrin. This supports the theory that H. pylori infection results in a decrease in somatostatin cell density and, as the latter is an inhibitor of gastrin cells, this results in an increased plasma gastrin.

Role of endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography for suspected choledocholithiasis in patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy

BACKGROUND

We report our experience of selective cholangiography in a series of laparoscopic cholecystectomies and evaluate the strategy of using "stricter criteria" to select preoperative endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCPs).

METHODS

A total of 1847 consecutive laparoscopic cholecystectomies were analyzed for use of cholangiography. A high risk of common bile duct stones (bilirubin level more than 2 mg/dL, jaundice, alkaline phosphatase level more than 150 U/L, pancreatitis, or dilated bile duct and/or stone on ultrasound or CT) was an indication for preoperative ERCP. Selective intraoperative cholangiography was performed for intermediate risk of bile duct stones. The strategy of using "stricter criteria" (jaundice and/or demonstrated bile duct stones on ultrasound or CT) for selecting preoperative ERCP was evaluated retrospectively.

RESULTS

Preoperative ERCP was performed in 135 patients (7.3%) and demonstrated bile duct stones in 43 (32%). Of 36 patients with mild gallstone pancreatitis alone, stones were found only in 6 patients (17%). Selective intraoperative cholangiography was performed in 87 (5%), and stones were found in 2 (2%); 67 (3.6%) postoperative ERCPs were performed for suspected choledocholithiasis, and stones were found in 21 (32%). Applying "stricter criteria" to select preoperative ERCP would predict ductal stones in 56%, whereas 3% of patients with stones would be missed, resulting in a 50% reduction in preoperative ERCPs.

CONCLUSIONS

Even in selected patients considered likely to have choledocholithiasis, the diagnostic yield of preoperative ERCP is low. Using "stricter criteria" to select patients for preoperative ERCP can avoid unnecessary ERCPs.

Long-term semi-quantitative follow-up of Helicobacter pylori associated gastritis

Helicobacter pylori infection has been implicated with the development of gastric carcinoma and lymphoma. We studied the long-term effects of H. pylori infection on gastric mucosa. Ten patients with Helicobacter pylori infection underwent repeat endoscopy and antral biopsies 8 years later. Gastric mucosal features (polymorphs, monocytes, intestinal metaplasia, atrophy and lymphoid aggregates) were graded from mild to severe (0 to 3) based on the Sydney system of gastritis classification. At repeat biopsy, 1 patient was negative for H. pylori after eradication therapy. Two patients (20 per cent) had spontaneous disappearance of H. pylori. One of these had intestinal metaplasia which progressed to low grade dysplasia. Polymorphs decreased with eradication of H. pylori (P < 0.05). Lymphoid aggregates increased with continued H. pylori infection but decreased with eradication of H. pylori (P < 0.05). Monocytes, intestinal metaplasia and atrophy remained unchanged. Persistent H. pylori infection appears to increase lymphoid aggregates and may promote its evolution into gastric lymphoma while eradication of H. pylori may result in a reduction of polymorphs and lymphoid aggregates.

Double blind cross-over placebo controlled study of omeprazole in the treatment of patients with reflux symptoms and physiological levels of acid reflux--the "sensitive oesophagus"

BACKGROUND

At least 10-15% of patients with reflux symptoms have a normal endoscopy and physiological levels of acid reflux on pH monitoring. Such patients with 50% or more of symptoms associated with acid reflux episodes have "a positive symptom index" (SI), and it has been proposed that this defines the "sensitive oesophagus".

AIM

To test the response to omeprazole 20 mg twice daily for four weeks of patients with normal levels of acid reflux using a randomised, placebo controlled, double blind, cross-over design.

PATIENTS

Eighteen patients with normal levels of reflux, 12 of whom had a positive SI.

METHODS

Response was measured by symptomatic assessment and the SF-36 quality of life (QOL) questionnaire.

RESULTS

Patients with a positive SI showed the following improvements on omeprazole compared with placebo: decrease in symptom frequency (p < 0.01), severity (p < 0.01) and consumption of antacids (p < 0.01). In the group with a negative SI only one patient clearly improved. The QOL parameters for bodily pain (65.6 v 53.4, p = 0.03) and vitality (60.6 v 48.8, p = 0.049) were significantly better on omeprazole than placebo for the group overall.

CONCLUSION

Omeprazole improves symptoms in 11 of 18 patients with normal endoscopy and pH monitoring, particularly those with a positive SI. This supports the theory that such patients have an oesophagus which is "sensitive" to acid reflux and are part of the GORD spectrum.

Therapeutic ERCP in outpatients

BACKGROUND

We evaluated the safety of outpatient therapeutic ERCP since most complications are apparent within a few hours.

METHODS

We reviewed 190 patients undergoing planned outpatient therapeutic ERCP from a cohort of 409 consecutive therapeutic ERCP procedures. Patients were selected for outpatient therapeutic ERCP based on relative good health and overnight accommodation near our institution.

RESULTS

Outpatient therapeutic ERCPs included plastic biliary stent insertion (n = 71), biliary sphincterotomy (45), pancreatic stent insertion (28), Wallstent insertion (19), biliary balloon or catheter dilation (10), pancreatic balloon or catheter dilation (8), biliary stone extraction with prior sphincterotomy (7), pancreatic sphincterotomy (5), and duodenal ampullectomy (1). Admission was necessary in 31 (16%) because of complications in 22 (11.6%) and observation of post-ERCP symptoms in 9. Twenty-six (13%) of these patients were admitted directly from the endoscopy unit recovery room and 5 (3%) from home after a median interval of 24 hours following discharge (range 5 to 48 hours). Reasons for admission were pancreatitis in 17, hemorrhage in 3, cholangitis in 3, endoscopic but not clinical hemorrhage in 4, pain in 4, and vomiting in 1. Of the patients who were admitted from home, 3 had pancreatitis (following sphincterotomy in 1, pancreatic stenting in 1, pancreatic balloon dilation in 1) and 2 had hemorrhage (postsphincterotomy in 1 and ampullectomy in 1). In comparison, of the 219 consecutive inpatients undergoing therapeutic ERCP, 28 (13%) developed complications with 1 (0.4%) death.

CONCLUSIONS

A policy of selective outpatient therapeutic ERCP, with admission reserved for those with established or suspected complication, appears to be safe and reduces health care costs.

Effervescent and standard formulations of ranitidine--a comparison of their pharmacokinetics and pharmacology

BACKGROUND

An effervescent formulation of ranitidine may be absorbed faster and achieve a faster onset of action than conventional tablet form. The aim of this study was to compare the effects of effervescent formulations of ranitidine with equivalent dose standard tablets, in terms of intragastric pH and plasma pharmacokinetics in the initial 6 h following dosing.

METHODS

Fifteen fasting healthy males, aged 18-31 (mean 29) years, were each randomly given, at weekly intervals, 150 mg standard and effervescent ranitidine and 300 mg standard and effervescent ranitidine. Ambulatory gastric pH was performed and plasma drug levels measured at regular intervals.

RESULTS

Plasma ranitidine levels increased more rapidly with both effervescent formulations compared with standard tablets as indicated by mean area under curve (AUC) at 1 h (P < 0.001). However, the pH profiles produced by all four treatments were similar with a steep rise in pH at 40-60 min to give a sustained level of pH 7 for the following 5 h. The effervescent formulations produced a transient rise in pH immediately following dosing, and for 300 mg this rise was significantly different at 10-20 min compared with the standard tablet (median pH 4.75 vs. 2.3, P < 0.05).

CONCLUSIONS

Plasma drug levels increase more rapidly following effervescent ranitidine. Effervescent and standard formulations of 150 and 300 mg are all equally effective in producing gastric pH 7 after 1 h. However, effervescent formulations produce an early transient rise in pH which may be of clinical benefit.

Randomised controlled trial of ranitidine versus omeprazole in combination with antibiotics for eradication of Helicobacter pylori

This study compared high dose ranitidine versus low dose omeprazole with antibiotics for the eradication of H pylori. 80 patients (mean age 48 years, range 18-75) who had H pylori infection were randomised in an investigator-blind manner to either a two-week regime of omeprazole 20 mg daily, amoxycillin 500 mg tid and metronidazole 400 mg tid (OAM), or ranitidine 600 mg bd, amoxycillin 500 mg tid and metronidazole 400 mg tid (RAM), or omeprazole 20 mg daily and clarithromycin 500 mg tid (OC), or omeprazole 20 mg daily and placebo (OP). H pylori was eradicated in 6 of 19 patients in the OAM group (32%); 8 of 18 in the RAM group (44%), 4 of 15 in the OC group (27%); none of 18 in the OP group (0%). [< P0.005 for OAM, RAM, OC vs OP; P = N.S. between OAM, RAM, OC]. Overall metronidazole resistance was unexpectedly high at 58%. Eradication rates in metronidazole sensitive patients were 71% (5/7) and 100% (3/3) for OAM and RAM respectively. In conclusion, H pylori eradication rates using high dose ranitidine plus amoxycillin and metronidazole may be similar to that of low dose omeprazole in combination with the same antibiotics for omeprazole with clarithromycin. Overall eradication rates were low due to a high incidence of metronidazole resistance but were higher in metronidazole-sensitive patients. Even high dose ranitidine with two antibiotics achieves a relatively low eradication rate. These metronidazole-based regimens cannot be recommended in areas with a high incidence of metronidazole resistance.

Diagnosis of common bile duct stones by intravenous cholangiography: prediction by ultrasound and liver function tests compared with endoscopic retrograde cholangiography

BACKGROUND

Routine intravenous cholangiography using the safer contrast medium, meglumine iotroxate, may be a useful investigation prior to laparoscopic cholecystectomy for the detection of suspected common bile duct stones. We compared this with endoscopic cholangiography.

METHODS

Eighty-one consecutive nonjaundiced patients (mean age 62 years; range 20 to 90) with suspected common bile duct stones referred for endoscopic cholangiography to one center underwent intravenous cholangiography that was considered positive if it detected ductal stones. The ability of ultrasound scans and liver function tests to predict ductal stones was also assessed.

RESULTS

Sixty patients had both endoscopic and intravenous cholangiograms performed. Thirteen out of 27 patients with ductal stones confirmed by endoscopic cholangiography had positive intravenous cholangiograms, and 29 out of 30 with no stones had negative intravenous cholangiograms. The sensitivity for intravenous cholangiography was 48%, specificity 97%, positive predictive value 93%, negative predictive value 67%, and accuracy 73%. For ultrasound scans the positive predictive value was 69%; negative predictive value was 78%. For liver function tests the positive predictive value was 68%; negative predictive value was 93%.

CONCLUSIONS

Intravenous cholangiography cannot be recommended instead of endoscopic cholangiography except in situations where the latter is not readily available. Ultrasound and liver function tests are useful in predicting ductal stones.

Circadian variation of alpha 1-adrenoceptor-mediated pressor response to phenylephrine in man

The variability in the pressor effects of the alpha 1-adrenoceptor agonist phenylephrine was observed under placebo conditions in ten healthy subjects in a double blind randomized study. Phenylephrine infusions were administered before administration of placebo (baseline) and 2, 4, 8, 12, 24 and 48 h later. The doses of phenylephrine required to increase systolic blood pressure by 20 mmHg after 8 and 12 h (5.30 and 9.30 pm, 81.4 +/- 15.3 and 71.1 +/- 16.0 micrograms min-1, respectively) were significantly (P < 0.01) less than the baseline values (8.30 am, 108.0 +/- 27.6 g min-1). These results might indicate a circadian variation in the phenylephrine-induced alpha-adrenoceptor-mediated vascular response in healthy subjects. These observations lend further insight into circadian variations of vascular tone that might contribute to circadian rhythms in cardiovascular disease.

The dose dependency of the alpha- and beta-adrenoceptor antagonist activity of carvedilol in man

1. The alpha- and beta-adrenoceptor antagonist activity of carvedilol, a beta-adrenoceptor antagonist with vasodilating properties, and labetalol were investigated in 10 healthy male subjects. They received infusions with serially increasing concentrations of isoprenaline and phenylephrine before and after single oral doses of carvedilol 6.25, 12.5 and 25 mg, labetalol 400 mg and placebo at weekly intervals in a double-blind randomised manner. An exercise step test was performed at the end of the infusions. 2. The dose of isoprenaline required to increase heart rate by 25 beats min-1 (I25) and the dose of phenylephrine required to increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure by 20 mm Hg (PS20 and PD20) were calculated using a quadratic fit to individual dose-response curves. Comparisons were made with placebo and P < 0.05 was considered significant. 3. The I25 was increased by carvedilol 25 mg and labetalol 400 mg (P < 0.05). The dose ratios at I25 were: carvedilol 6.25 mg 2.1 +/- 1.6, carvedilol 12.5 mg 3.1 +/- 1.9, carvedilol 25 mg 6.4 +/- 4.9 and labetalol 400 mg 8.8 +/- 4.4. 4. The PS20 was increased by labetalol 400 mg (P < 0.05). The dose ratios at PS20 were: carvedilol 6.25 mg 1.0 +/- 0.2; 12.5 mg, 1.2 +/- 0.2; 25 mg, 1.3 +/- 0.4 and labetalol 400 mg 2.2 +/- 0.8. 5. The PD20 was increased by labetalol 400 mg (P < 0.05). The dose ratios at PD20 were: carvedilol 6.25 mg 1.1 +/- 0.3; 12.5 mg, 1.3 +/- 0.3; carvedilol 25 mg 1.3 +/- 0.4 and labetalol 400 mg 2.1 +/- 0.8.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

Patient knowledge and prescription of ulcer healing drugs in medical inpatients

If patients on ulcer healing drugs are ill-informed about their medication or diagnosis their lack of knowledge may prejudice them from receiving potentially beneficial treatment, such as thrombolytic therapy, because of concern about upper gastrointestinal side effects. Furthermore because ulcer healing drugs are safe and effective there is a tendency to prescribe these drugs inappropriately. We therefore assessed patients' knowledge about their ulcer healing drugs and whether the prescriptions were appropriate or not. Consecutive patients on ulcer healing drugs admitted as emergencies to the general medical take-in underwent a structured interview designed to assess knowledge of drugs prescribed prior to admission. Patient responses (fully correct, partially correct or incorrect) and appropriateness (appropriate, possibly appropriate or inappropriate) of the prescriptions were graded by reference to information obtained from hospital notes and/or general practitioner. Seventy-nine out of a total of 537 patients (15%) were on ulcer healing drugs. Mean age was 64 years (range 26-91). Fifty-five (70%) of these patients could be analysed for correctness and 62 (78%) for the appropriateness. Patients gave an incorrect indication for 18% of ulcer healing drugs but only for 10% of non-ulcer healing drugs (P < 0.05). Factors associated with a poorer knowledge of drugs overall, were increasing age and impaired mental test score but not the number of drugs the patient was taking. The trends were similar for ulcer healing drugs alone. Sixteen out of 62 (26%, 95% CI 16-39%) prescriptions for ulcer healing drugs were deemed inappropriate. Our findings demonstrate a need for greater attention to patient education about drugs, especially ulcer healing drugs.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)