Low Back Pain Perceptions and Coping Strategies in Pre-Professional Dancers: A Qualitative Study

AIMS

Low back pain (LBP) is a common health problem in pre-professional dancers which could hamper the dancers' professional career. However, pre-professional dancers are not often studied, although they may have their own pain perceptions and coping strategies towards LBP. Considering the biopsychosocial nature of LBP, it is important to increase the understanding of these perceptions and coping strategies. The aim of this qualitative research study was to explore the dancers' perceptions about LBP and their coping strategies when they suffered from LBP.

METHODS

Eighteen pre-professional dancers with and without LBP from different dance schools in Belgium were included in this study. Participants were invited for an in-depth online video interview. These in-depth interviews were based on a topic list. Afterwards, the interview transcripts were analyzed thematically.

RESULTS

Two primary themes emerged from the data: 1) perceptions of LBP and 2) coping strategies which dancers applied when they suffered from LBP. The perceptions about LBP were related to two different themes: "it's all about the body" and "it's all about the psychosocial and contextual factors." In addition, the coping strategies were divided into "active coping strategies" and "passive coping strategies," whereas the most popular coping strategies were stretching exercises and passive coping strategies such as massages or heating cream.

CONCLUSION

Although LBP has clearly been shown to be a biopsychosocial phenomenon, this qualitative study showed that dancers mainly considered biomedical factors as contributing factors to LBP. Additionally, instead of relying on coping strategies aimed at directly improving pain or trying to treat LBP on the basis of a single-cause diagnosis, it is important to consider the biopsychosocial origin of LBP in the management plans.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis Gene Expression Associated With Fluoroquinolone Resistance and Efflux Pump Inhibition

BACKGROUND

We evaluated the relationship between response to efflux pump inhibition in fluoroquinolone-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Mtb) isolates and differences in gene expression and expression quantitative trait loci (eQTL).

METHODS

We determined ofloxacin minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) for ofloxacin-resistant and -susceptible Mtb isolates without and with the efflux pump inhibitor verapamil. We performed RNA sequencing (RNA-seq), whole genome sequencing (WGS), and eQTL analysis, focusing on efflux pump, transport, and secretion-associated genes.

RESULTS

Of 42 ofloxacin-resistant Mtb isolates, 27 had adequate WGS coverage and acceptable RNA-seq quality. Of these 27, 7 had >2-fold reduction in ofloxacin MIC with verapamil; 6 had 2-fold reduction, and 14 had <2-fold reduction. Five genes (including Rv0191) had significantly increased expression in the MIC fold change >2 compared to <2 groups. Among regulated genes, 31 eQTLs (without ofloxacin) and 35 eQTLs (with ofloxacin) had significant allele frequency differences between MIC fold change >2 and <2 groups. Of these, Rv1410c, Rv2459, and Rv3756c (without ofloxacin) and Rv0191 and Rv3756c (with ofloxacin) have previously been associated with antituberculosis drug resistance.

CONCLUSIONS

In this first reported eQTL analysis in Mtb, Rv0191 had increased gene expression and significance in eQTL analysis, making it a candidate for functional evaluation of efflux-mediated fluoroquinolone resistance in Mtb.

Streptococcus agalactiae cadD alleviates metal stress and promotes intracellular survival in macrophages and ascending infection during pregnancy

Perinatal infection with Streptococcus agalactiae, or Group B Streptococcus (GBS), is associated with preterm birth, neonatal sepsis, and stillbirth. Here, we study the interactions of GBS with macrophages, essential sentinel immune cells that defend the gravid reproductive tract. Transcriptional analyses of GBS-macrophage co-cultures reveal enhanced expression of a gene encoding a putative metal resistance determinant, cadD. Deletion of cadD reduces GBS survival in macrophages, metal efflux, and resistance to metal toxicity. In a mouse model of ascending infection during pregnancy, the ΔcadD strain displays attenuated bacterial burden, inflammation, and cytokine production in gestational tissues. Furthermore, depletion of host macrophages alters cytokine expression and decreases GBS invasion in a cadD-dependent fashion. Our results indicate that GBS cadD plays an important role in metal detoxification, which promotes immune evasion and bacterial proliferation in the pregnant host.

Fluoroquinolone susceptibility in first-line drug-susceptible M. tuberculosis isolates in Lima, Peru

Objective

To determine at two distinct time points the prevalence of resistance to ofloxacin (OFX), the representative class drug of fluoroquinolones (FQs), in M. tuberculosis isolates susceptible to first-line drugs.

Results

There were 279 M. tuberculosis isolates from the two cohorts (2004–2005: 238 isolates; 2017: 41 isolates) that underwent OFX drug-susceptibility testing (critical concentration: 2 µg/ml). Of 238 isolates in Cohort 1, no resistance to OFX was detected (95% CI 0–0.016); likewise, in Cohort 2, no resistance to OFX was detected in 41 isolates (95% CI 0–0.086). Our findings suggest that FQ use remains a viable option for the treatment of first-line drug-susceptible TB in Peru.

Macrophage-Derived MicroRNA-21 Drives Overwhelming Glycolytic and Inflammatory Response during Sepsis via Repression of the PGE2/IL-10 Axis

Myeloid cells are critical for systemic inflammation, microbial control, and organ damage during sepsis. MicroRNAs are small noncoding RNAs that can dictate the outcome of sepsis. The role of myeloid-based expression of microRNA-21 (miR-21) in sepsis is inconclusive. In this study, we show that sepsis enhanced miR-21 expression in both peritoneal macrophages and neutrophils from septic C57BL/6J mice, and the deletion of miR-21 locus in myeloid cells (miR-21^Δmyel mice) enhanced animal survival, decreased bacterial growth, decreased systemic inflammation, and decreased organ damage. Resistance to sepsis was associated with a reduction of aerobic glycolysis and increased levels of the anti-inflammatory mediators PGE₂ and IL-10 in miR-21^Δmyel in vivo and in vitro. Using blocking Abs and pharmacological tools, we discovered that increased survival and decreased systemic inflammation in septic miR-21^Δmyel mice is dependent on PGE₂/IL-10-mediated inhibition of glycolysis. Together, these findings demonstrate that expression of miR-21 in myeloid cells orchestrates the balance between anti-inflammatory mediators and metabolic reprogramming that drives cytokine storm during sepsis.

Resistance-Conferring Mutations on Whole-Genome Sequencing of Fluoroquinolone-resistant and -Susceptible Mycobacterium tuberculosis Isolates: A Proposed Threshold for Identifying Resistance

BACKGROUND

Fluoroquinolone resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Mtb) is conferred by DNA gyrase mutations, but not all fluoroquinolone-resistant Mtb isolates have mutations detected. The optimal allele frequency threshold to identify resistance-conferring mutations by whole-genome sequencing is unknown.

METHODS

Phenotypically ofloxacin-resistant and lineage-matched ofloxacin-susceptible Mtb isolates underwent whole-genome sequencing at an average coverage depth of 868 reads. Polymorphisms within the quinolone-resistance-determining region (QRDR) of gyrA and gyrB were identified. The allele frequency threshold using the Genome Analysis Toolkit pipeline was ~8%; allele-level data identified the predominant variant allele frequency and mutational burden (ie, sum of all variant allele frequencies in the QRDR) in gyrA, gyrB, and gyrA + gyrB for each isolate. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves assessed the optimal measure of allele frequency and potential thresholds for identifying phenotypically resistant isolates.

RESULTS

Of 42 ofloxacin-resistant Mtb isolates, area under the ROC curve (AUC) was highest for predominant variant allele frequency, so that measure was used to evaluate optimal mutation detection thresholds. AUCs for 8%, 2.5%, and 0.8% thresholds were 0.8452, 0.9286, and 0.9069, respectively. Sensitivity and specificity were 69% and 100% for 8%, 86% and 100% for 2.5%, 91% and 91% for 0.8%. The sensitivity of the 2.5% and 0.8% thresholds were significantly higher than the 8% threshold (P = .016 and .004, respectively) but not significantly different between one another (P = .5).

CONCLUSIONS

A predominant mutation allele frequency threshold of 2.5% had the highest AUC for detecting DNA gyrase mutations that confer ofloxacin resistance, and was therefore the optimal threshold.

SOCS-1 inhibition of type I interferon restrains Staphylococcus aureus skin host defense

The skin innate immune response to methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) culminates in the formation of an abscess to prevent bacterial spread and tissue damage. Pathogen recognition receptors (PRRs) dictate the balance between microbial control and injury. Therefore, intracellular brakes are of fundamental importance to tune the appropriate host defense while inducing resolution. The intracellular inhibitor suppressor of cytokine signaling 1 (SOCS-1), a known JAK/STAT inhibitor, prevents the expression and actions of PRR adaptors and downstream effectors. Whether SOCS-1 is a molecular component of skin host defense remains to be determined. We hypothesized that SOCS-1 decreases type I interferon production and IFNAR-mediated antimicrobial effector functions, limiting the inflammatory response during skin infection. Our data show that MRSA skin infection enhances SOCS-1 expression, and both SOCS-1 inhibitor peptide-treated and myeloid-specific SOCS-1 deficient mice display decreased lesion size, bacterial loads, and increased abscess thickness when compared to wild-type mice treated with the scrambled peptide control. SOCS-1 deletion/inhibition increases phagocytosis and bacterial killing, dependent on nitric oxide release. SOCS-1 inhibition also increases the levels of type I and type II interferon levels in vivo. IFNAR deletion and antibody blockage abolished the beneficial effects of SOCS-1 inhibition in vivo. Notably, we unveiled that hyperglycemia triggers aberrant SOCS-1 expression that correlates with decreased overall IFN signatures in the infected skin. SOCS-1 inhibition restores skin host defense in the highly susceptible hyperglycemic mice. Overall, these data demonstrate a role for SOCS-1-mediated type I interferon actions in host defense and inflammation during MRSA skin infection.

Increased Frequency of Memory CD4+ T-Cell Responses in Individuals With Previously Treated Extrapulmonary Tuberculosis

Extrapulmonary TB (EPTB) occurs with increased frequency in persons with underlying immunodeficiency. Even after recovery from acute illness, differences in immune phenotype and activation persist. Studies defining characteristics of immune responses after recovery from extrapulmonary TB may provide insights into factors that increase TB risk. We performed two case-control studies (in the United States and Brazil) among HIV-seronegative adults with previous EPTB (n = 9; 25), previous pulmonary TB (n = 7; 25), latent M. tuberculosis (Mtb) infection (n = 11; 25), and uninfected TB contacts (n = 10; 25). We assessed the frequency of dual CD4+ interferon-γ and tumor necrosis factor-α responses after stimulation with overlapping Mtb peptides from ESAT-6 or CFP-10, or gamma-irradiated Mtb H37Rv, proliferative responses to Mtb antigens, T-regulatory cell (Treg) frequency and phenotype. In both study populations, individuals with prior EPTB had the highest frequency of intracellular cytokine-producing cells in response to Mtb antigens (p < 0.05; p <.0001). Persons with prior EPTB in Brazil had the highest levels of CD4 proliferation to Mtb antigens (p < 0.0001), and the highest expression of CD39 on Tregs (p < 0.0001). Individuals with treated EPTB maintained high frequencies of Mtb-specific memory responses and active Treg cells, suggesting that susceptibility to EPTB occurs despite the ability to develop and maintain enhanced adaptive immune responses.

Leukotriene B4 licenses inflammasome activation to enhance skin host defense

The initial production of inflammatory mediators dictates host defense as well as tissue injury. Inflammasome activation is a constituent of the inflammatory response by recognizing pathogen and host-derived products and eliciting the production of IL-1β and IL-18 in addition to inducing a type of inflammatory cell death termed "pyroptosis." Leukotriene B4 (LTB4) is a lipid mediator produced quickly (seconds to minutes) by phagocytes and induces chemotaxis, increases cytokine/chemokine production, and enhances antimicrobial effector functions. Whether LTB4 directly activates the inflammasome remains to be determined. Our data show that endogenously produced LTB4 is required for the expression of pro-IL-1β and enhances inflammasome assembly in vivo and in vitro. Furthermore, LTB4-mediated Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) activation is required for inflammasome assembly in vivo as well for IL-1β-enhanced skin host defense. Together, these data unveil a new role for LTB4 in enhancing the expression and assembly of inflammasome components and suggest that while blocking LTB4 actions could be a promising therapeutic strategy to prevent inflammasome-mediated diseases, exogenous LTB4 can be used as an adjuvant to boost inflammasome-dependent host defense.

Visual function assessment of diagnostic radiography students

INTRODUCTION

Deterioration of visual acuity (VA) and visual impairment has been linked to age-related subtle changes, gender, and a correlation to socioeconomic status. This study aimed to assess first-year diagnostic radiography students' visual functional abilities by applying the International Classification of Impairments, Disabilities and Handicaps (ICIDH) recommendations of functional VA screening and health-related quality of life questionnaire (HRQOL).

METHODS

The design followed the World Health Organisation (WHO) electronic VA testing of monocular sight using LogMAR charts and binocular vision using Snellen charts, and an HRQOL questionnaire assessing for reduced ability of visual-based tasks in activities of daily living (ADL). The data was evaluated in correlation to the participant's visual correction, age, gender, and socioeconomic background.

RESULTS

Seventy students were recruited, all meeting the WHO standard level for visual ability, with 100% (n = 70/70) met or achieved above normal binocular vision, correlating to expected normal population results from published studies for age. The monocular vision demonstrated 74% (n = 52/70) for the right eye, and 80% (n = 56/70) for the left eye for normal vision levels. The results did not differ significantly between each eye (p = 0.21), gender variations between the left eye (p = 0.27) and the right eye (p = 0.10) results were affected by sample ratio of females (80%; n = 56/70) to males (20%; n = 14/70), the visual correction did not impair binocular VA. The HRQOL assessment indicated no significant functional VA issues in the study sample. The study demonstrated no association between the participant's socioeconomic background that may influence their VA ability.

CONCLUSION

The results provided normative binocular and monocular data on visual function in a sample of student radiographers and indicated that their thresholds align to normal (or near-normal) VA standards.

IMPLICATIONS FOR PRACTICE

The visual health data was reviewed for subgroup comparison and trend analysis, and did not identify risk factors within this sample group that their VA and visual functioning would impact upon radiography clinical placement tasks and activities. The sample is not generalisable to the wider population; further studies are recommended.

Increased vitamin D receptor expression from macrophages after stimulation with M. tuberculosis among persons who have recovered from extrapulmonary tuberculosis

BACKGROUND

Independent of HIV infection, extrapulmonary TB (EPTB) risk is increased in women, persons of black race or foreign birth, and by genetic variants in vitamin D receptor (VDR), interleukin-1 beta (IL-1β), and toll-like receptor (TLR)-2; functional correlates are unclear. We evaluated macrophage expression of VDR, TLR2, cathelicidin, and TNF-α, and production of IL-1β in HIV-seronegative persons with previous EPTB, previous pulmonary TB, latent M. tuberculosis infection, and uninfected TB contacts. Persons with previous pleural TB were excluded due to enhanced immune responses at the site of disease.

METHODS

Macrophages were stimulated with TLR-2 agonist M. tuberculosis lipoprotein (LpqH), live and gamma-irradiated M. tuberculosis.

RESULTS

M. tuberculosis - infected macrophages from persons with previous EPTB had increased VDR expression (29.17 relative value unit increase in median expression vs. uninfected contacts, after adjusting for foreign-born status; P = 0.02). Macrophages from persons with previous EPTB had a 38.88 μg/mL increase in median IL-1β production after stimulation with LpqH compared to uninfected contacts (P = 0.01); the effect was similar (44.99 μg/mL) but not statistically significant after controlling for foreign-born status. Median 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels were low but not significantly different between groups.

CONCLUSIONS

There was increased macrophage expression of VDR after stimulation with live M. tuberculosis in persons with previous extrapulmonary TB. If post-treatment VDR expression reflects expression prior to disease, it may identify persons at risk for extrapulmonary TB.

A novel resistance mutation in eccC5 of the ESX-5 secretion system confers ofloxacin resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis

BACKGROUND

Fluoroquinolone resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is often conferred by DNA gyrase mutations. However, a substantial proportion of fluoroquinolone-resistant M. tuberculosis isolates do not have such mutations.

METHODS

Ofloxacin-resistant and lineage-matched ofloxacin-susceptible M. tuberculosis isolates underwent WGS. Novel candidate resistance mutations were confirmed by Sanger sequencing and conferral of resistance was assessed via site-directed mutagenesis and allelic exchange. Ofloxacin MIC was determined by resazurin microtitre assay (REMA) and the effects on MICs of efflux pump inhibitors (CCCP, reserpine and verapamil) were determined.

RESULTS

Of 26 ofloxacin-resistant isolates, 8 (31%) did not have resistance-conferring DNA gyrase mutations. The V762G mutation in Rv1783 (eccC5, encoding a protein in the ESX-5 membrane complex secretion system) was present on WGS in 8/26 (31%) resistant isolates and 0/11 susceptible isolates (P = 0.005). The mutation was identified in five isolates without DNA gyrase mutations and three isolates with such mutations; it was identified in both European-American and East Asian M. tuberculosis lineages. The ofloxacin MIC increased from 1 to 32 mg/L after introduction of the V762G mutation into M. tuberculosis H37Rv. In this strain with the V762G mutation, ofloxacin MIC did not change in the presence of efflux pump inhibitors.

CONCLUSIONS

A novel V762G mutation in Rv1783 conferred ofloxacin resistance in M. tuberculosis by a mechanism other than drug efflux. This occurred in a substantial proportion of resistant isolates, particularly those without DNA gyrase mutations.

A randomized, phase II study of afatinib versus cetuximab in metastatic or recurrent squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck

BACKGROUND

Afatinib is an oral, irreversible ErbB family blocker that has shown activity in epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)-mutated lung cancer. We hypothesized that the agent would have greater antitumor activity compared with cetuximab in recurrent or metastatic (R/M) head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) patients, whose disease has progressed after platinum-containing therapy.

PATIENTS AND METHODS

An open-label, randomized, phase II trial was conducted in 43 centers; 124 patients were randomized (1 : 1) to either afatinib (50 mg/day) or cetuximab (250 mg/m(2)/week) until disease progression or intolerable adverse events (AEs) (stage I), with optional crossover (stage II). The primary end point was tumor shrinkage before crossover assessed by investigator (IR) and independent central review (ICR).

RESULTS

A total of 121 patients were treated (61 afatinib, 60 cetuximab) and 68 crossed over to stage II (32 and 36 respectively). In stage I, mean tumor shrinkage by IR/ICR was 10.4%/16.6% with afatinib and 5.4%/10.1% with cetuximab (P = 0.46/0.30). Objective response rate was 16.1%/8.1% with afatinib and 6.5%/9.7% with cetuximab (IR/ICR). Comparable disease control rates were observed with afatinib (50%) and cetuximab (56.5%) by IR; similar results were seen by ICR. Most common grade ≥3 drug-related AEs (DRAEs) were rash/acne (18% versus 8.3%), diarrhea (14.8% versus 0%), and stomatitis/mucositis (11.5% versus 0%) with afatinib and cetuximab, respectively. Patients with DRAEs leading to treatment discontinuation were 23% with afatinib and 5% with cetuximab. In stage II, disease control rate (IR/ICR) was 38.9%/33.3% with afatinib and 18.8%/18.8% with cetuximab.

CONCLUSION

Afatinib showed antitumor activity comparable to cetuximab in R/M HNSCC in this exploratory phase II trial, although more patients on afatinib discontinued treatment due to AEs. Sequential EGFR/ErbB treatment with afatinib and cetuximab provided sustained clinical benefit in patients after crossover, suggesting a lack of cross-resistance.

Fluoroquinolone susceptibility in Mycobacterium tuberculosis after pre-diagnosis exposure to older- versus newer-generation fluoroquinolones

Fluoroquinolone exposure before tuberculosis (TB) diagnosis is common. We anticipated that exposure to older-generation fluoroquinolones is associated with greater fluoroquinolone MICs in Mycobacterium tuberculosis than exposure to newer agents. A nested case-control study was performed among newly diagnosed TB patients reported to the Tennessee Department of Health (January 2002-December 2009). Each fluoroquinolone-resistant case (n=25) was matched to two fluoroquinolone-susceptible controls (n=50). Ciprofloxacin and ofloxacin were classified as older-generation fluoroquinolones; levofloxacin, moxifloxacin and gatifloxacin were considered newer agents. There was no difference between median ofloxacin MIC for isolates from 9 patients exposed only to older fluoroquinolones, 25 exposed only to newer fluoroquinolones, 6 exposed to both and 35 fluoroquinolone-unexposed patients (Kruskal-Wallis, P=0.35). Using multivariate proportional odds logistic regression adjusting for age and sex, duration of exposure to newer fluoroquinolones was independently associated with higher MIC (OR=1.79, 95% CI 1.22-2.64), but duration of exposure to older fluoroquinolones was not (OR=0.94, 95% CI 0.50-1.78). Isolates from patients exposed only to newer fluoroquinolones tended to have mutations at gyrA codons 90, 91 or 94 more frequently than those exposed only to older fluoroquinolones (44% vs. 11%). We were surprised to find that duration of exposure to newer fluoroquinolones, but not older ones, was independently associated with higher ofloxacin MIC. This suggests that the mutant selection window lower boundary is likely to have clinical relevance; caution is warranted when newer fluoroquinolones are prescribed to patients with TB risk factors.

Fluoroquinolone exposure prior to tuberculosis diagnosis is associated with an increased risk of death

SETTING

Fluoroquinolone (FQ) exposure before tuberculosis (TB) diagnosis is common, but its effect on outcomes, including mortality, is unclear.

DESIGN

Among TB patients reported to the Tennessee Department of Health from 2007 to 2009, we assessed FQ exposure within 6 months before TB diagnosis. The primary outcome was the combined endpoint of death at the time of TB diagnosis and during anti-tuberculosis treatment.

RESULTS

Among 609 TB cases, 214 (35%) received FQs within 6 months before TB diagnosis. A total of 71 (12%) persons died; 10 (2%) were dead at TB diagnosis and 61 (10%) died during anti-tuberculosis treatment. In multivariable logistic regression analysis, factors independently associated with death were older age (OR 1.05 per year, 95%CI 1.04-1.07), human immunodeficiency virus infection (OR 8.08, 95%CI 3.83-17.06), US birth (OR 3.03, 95%CI 1.03-9.09), and any FQ exposure before TB diagnosis (OR 1.82, 95%CI 1.05-3.15). Persons with FQ exposure before TB diagnosis were more likely to have culture- and smear-positive disease than unexposed persons.

CONCLUSIONS

Among this patient population, FQ exposure before TB diagnosis was associated with an increased risk of death. These findings underscore the need for cautious use of FQs in persons with possible TB.

A systematic review of gyrase mutations associated with fluoroquinolone-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis and a proposed gyrase numbering system

Fluoroquinolone resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis has become increasingly important. A review of mutations in DNA gyrase, the fluoroquinolone target, is needed to improve the molecular detection of resistance. We performed a systematic review of studies reporting mutations in DNA gyrase genes in clinical M. tuberculosis isolates. From 42 studies that met inclusion criteria, 1220 fluoroquinolone-resistant M. tuberculosis isolates underwent sequencing of the quinolone resistance-determining region (QRDR) of gyrA; 780 (64%) had mutations. The QRDR of gyrB was sequenced in 534 resistant isolates; 17 (3%) had mutations. Mutations at gyrA codons 90, 91 or 94 were present in 654/1220 (54%) resistant isolates. Four different GyrB numbering systems were reported, resulting in mutation location discrepancies. We propose a consensus numbering system. Most fluoroquinolone-resistant M. tuberculosis isolates had mutations in DNA gyrase, but a substantial proportion did not. The proposed consensus numbering system can improve molecular detection of resistance and identification of novel mutations.

Microcolonies in fluoroquinolone agar proportion susceptibility testing of Mycobacterium tuberculosis: an indicator of drug resistance

Microcolony growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis on agar proportion susceptibility testing is neither well-defined nor previously reported with fluoroquinolone susceptibility testing. We describe here M. tuberculosis microcolony growth with fluoroquinolones, and assess its clinical significance. We screened 797 M. tuberculosis isolates for ofloxacin resistance (2.0 μg/mL) by agar proportion; 19 ofloxacin-resistant and 38 ofloxacin-susceptible isolates were selected for more detailed susceptibility testing with ofloxacin, ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin (all at 2.0 μg/mL) and moxifloxacin (0.5 μg/mL). The 57 isolates were also tested at two concentrations both above and below the critical concentrations. Microcolonies were defined as colonies 0.2-0.4 mm in diameter; confirmed microcolonies were present on repeat testing. Of the 57 isolates tested in detail, 7 grew microcolonies, of which 2 (0.3% of all isolates tested) had confirmed microcolonies on repeat testing (6 tests performed, and microcolonies were present on at least 4). Both M. tuberculosis isolates were ofloxacin-resistant on screening, and had ofloxacin minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) >8 μg/mL. The five other isolates were ofloxacin-susceptible on screening, but had regular colony growth (i.e., resistance) at the drug concentration that initially resulted in microcolonies (ofloxacin 0.5 or 1.0 μg/mL). Microcolonies were observed infrequently with fluoroquinolone susceptibility testing, but when confirmed, they were associated with drug resistance.

Fluoroquinolone resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis: the effect of duration and timing of fluoroquinolone exposure

RATIONALE

Fluoroquinolones are the most commonly prescribed antibiotic class in the United States. They have the potential to become first-line antituberculosis therapy, but the effect of fluoroquinolone use on fluoroquinolone resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not well characterized.

OBJECTIVES

To determine the prevalence of and risk factors for fluoroquinolone-resistant tuberculosis in a large United States population.

METHODS

We identified all people with culture-confirmed tuberculosis enrolled in TennCare (Medicaid) and reported to the Tennessee Department of Health from January 2002 to December 2006. People with fluoroquinolone-resistant M. tuberculosis isolates (cases) were compared with those with susceptible isolates (control subjects). Fluoroquinolone resistance was determined by agar proportion using ofloxacin 2 microg/ml. Outpatient fluoroquinolone exposure in the 12 months before tuberculosis diagnosis was ascertained from TennCare pharmacy data.

MEASUREMENTS AND MAIN RESULTS

Of 640 study patients, 116 (18%) had fluoroquinolone exposure in the 12 months before diagnosis, and 16 (2.5%; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.4-4.0%) M. tuberculosis isolates were fluoroquinolone resistant. Among the 54 patients with more than 10 days of fluoroquinolone exposure, 7 (13%) had fluoroquinolone resistance. In multivariable logistic regression analyses using propensity score to control for age, sex, race, HIV serostatus, and site of disease, more than 10 days of fluoroquinolone exposure before tuberculosis diagnosis was associated with fluoroquinolone resistance (odds ratio 7.0; 95% CI, 2.3-20.6; P = 0.001). Fluoroquinolone exposure for more than 10 days that occurred more than 60 days before tuberculosis diagnosis was associated with the highest risk of resistance (20.8%; odds ratio 17.0; 95% CI, 5.1-56.8; P < 0.001 compared with no exposure).

CONCLUSIONS

Overall, fluoroquinolone resistance was relatively low. However, receipt of fluoroquinolones for more than 10 days, particularly more than 60 days before tuberculosis diagnosis, was associated with a high risk of fluoroquinolone-resistant tuberculosis.

Fluoroquinolone resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis: an assessment of MGIT 960, MODS and nitrate reductase assay and fluoroquinolone cross-resistance

OBJECTIVES

The aim of this study was to assess the sensitivity, specificity and time to results of mycobacterial growth indicator tube (MGIT) 960, microscopic observation drug susceptibility (MODS) assay and nitrate reductase assay (NRA) compared with the gold standard agar proportion method (PM), and to determine whether there is cross-resistance between older-generation fluoroquinolones and moxifloxacin.

METHODS

Mycobacterium tuberculosis isolates from culture-confirmed tuberculosis patients from 2002 to 2007 were tested for ofloxacin (2 mg/L) resistance by PM and MGIT 960. All isolates from 2005 and 2006 were also tested by MODS and NRA. Ofloxacin-resistant isolates by PM were further tested by all four methods using ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin and moxifloxacin. For each ofloxacin-resistant isolate, two ofloxacin-susceptible isolates were tested against all three fluoroquinolones using all four methods.

RESULTS

Of the 797 M. tuberculosis isolates, 19 (2.4%) were ofloxacin-resistant by PM. MGIT 960 had 100% sensitivity (95% CI, 83%-100%) and specificity (95% CI, 99.5%-100%). Of the 797 isolates, 239 were from 2005 to 2006 and 6 of these (2.5%) were resistant by PM. MODS had 100% sensitivity (95% CI, 61%-100%) and specificity (95% CI, 98%-100%). NRA had 100% sensitivity (95% CI, 61%-100%) and 98.7% specificity (95% CI, 96%-99.6%). The median time to results was shorter using MGIT 960 (8 days), MODS (6 days) or NRA (9 days) compared with PM (21 days) (P < 0.001). All 19 ofloxacin-resistant isolates were resistant to ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin and moxifloxacin by PM.

CONCLUSIONS

MGIT 960, MODS and NRA are sensitive and specific and more rapid than PM for identifying fluoroquinolone resistance in M. tuberculosis. Ofloxacin resistance was associated with cross-resistance to ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin and moxifloxacin.

Results of a nationwide prospective audit of stoma complications within 3 weeks of surgery

OBJECTIVE

Actuarial analysis of stoma complications (problematic stomas) is lacking. The objectives of this audit were: to identify the incidence of stoma complications within the UK; to highlight any dissimilarity of incidence from centre to centre; to ascertain if the height of the stoma (distance of stoma lumen from the skin) at the time of fashioning is a predisposing factor to problems; and finally to initiate much needed research.

METHOD

Commencing 1st January 2005, stoma care services nationwide (256) were invited to audit prospectively their next 50 enteric stomas or for a period of 1 year which ever came first. The definition of a problematic stoma being one, which needed one or more accessories to keep the patient clean and dry for a minimum period of 24 h. The incident is to have happened within 3 weeks of surgery. Factors taken into account were: type of stoma, height of stoma within 48 h of surgery; emergency or elective procedure, problem identified, BMI, gender and underlying diagnosis of the patient. The identities of the participating centres are confidential.

RESULTS

Of the 256 hospital-based stoma care services within the UK, 93 (36%) participated. A total of 3970 stomas were recorded, of which 1329 (34%) were identified as problematic. Sixty-two centres reported 45-50 stomas with a range of complications 6-96%. The loop ileostomy was found to be the stoma which causes most problems. A stoma of <10 mm is a predisposing factor to complications and problems are more likely to occur following an emergency procedure. More men than women have stomas formed, but have significantly fewer problems and there is no significant difference between underlying diagnoses.

CONCLUSION

The stoma height, stoma type and gender of the patient are significant risk factors identified in this audit. The BMI of patient did not affect the outcome. Patients undergoing an emergency procedure are more likely to have a problematic stoma. The significant variation of complications from centre to centre indicates surgical technique as being the key factor in stoma formation and subsequent quality of life for the patient.

Invader plus method detects herpes simplex virus in cerebrospinal fluid and simultaneously differentiates types 1 and 2

We report here on the development and validation of a prototype Invader Plus method for the qualitative detection of herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2 in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The method combines PCR and Invader techniques in a single, closed-tube, continuous-reaction format that gives an analytical sensitivity of approximately 10 copies per reaction. The clinical sensitivity and specificity were 100.0% and 98.6%, respectively, when the results of the method were validated against the results obtained with a PCR colorimetric microtiter plate system by use of clinical CSF specimens.

QIAamp MinElute virus kit effectively extracts viral nucleic acids from cerebrospinal fluids and nasopharyngeal swabs

Background

Nucleic acid preparation from a variety of clinical specimens requires efficient target recovery and amplification inhibitor removal and is critical for successful molecular diagnosis. The QIAamp MinElute Virus kit (Qiagen Inc., Valencia, CA) was compared to the two existing methods currently used in our laboratory, IsoQuick (Orca Research Inc., Bothell, WA) for DNA extraction and RNAzol B (Leedo Laboratories Inc., Houston, TX) for RNA extraction, of viral nucleic acids.

Study design

A total of 150 clinical specimens, including cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and nasopharyngeal swabs (NPS), were used to determine the extraction efficiency of the MinElute compared to the other two methods. Nucleic acid recovery, hands-on time, turn-around-time and cost were compared across all kits.

Results

There was complete concordance between the MinElute and IsoQuick/RNAzol kits when herpes simplex virus (HSV), Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), varicella-zoster virus (VZV), influenza A virus or enteroviruses were detected using a colorimetric microtiter plate PCR system. The kits were equivalent in their ability to detect either DNA or RNA with superior ability to recover a high quality and quantity of RNA. With the potential to process larger specimen volumes, the MinElute kit can significantly shorten processing time from 2 h to 50–55 min.

Conclusions

Although relatively high test kit costs were noted, the MinElute kit provides another rapid and user-friendly specimen processing tool in the diagnostic molecular microbiology laboratory.

The cost of developing site-specific environmental regulations: evidence from EPA's project XL

The flagship of the Environmental Protection Agency's regulatory reinvention initiative, Project XL has been touted as a regulatory blueprint for a site-specific, performance-based pollution-control system, but widespread complaints about the costs of the program beg the question of whether the costs of tailoring regulations to individual facilities are manageable. To address this question, this paper presents original survey data on a sample of 11 XL projects. We find that the fixed costs of putting in place XL agreements are substantial, averaging over $450,000 per firm. While stakeholder negotiations are widely cited as the principal source for these costs, we find that they actually arise mainly from interaction between participating facilities and the EPA. Moreover, EPA management problems are perceived by our survey respondents as having inflated project development costs. Finally, we find that the key factors that explains differences in costs across XL projects are the scope and complexity of the project proposal. These findings suggest that Project XL favors large firms that can afford to pay significant project development costs, that EPA management problems must be resolved to reduce costs, and that there may be a significant economic bias against complex and innovative proposals--precisely the type of proposals that Project XL was designed to foster in order to improve the efficiency of the regulatory system.

Regional differences in technetium-99m-ECD clearance on brain SPECT in healthy subjects

The aim of this study was to evaluate the in vivo stability of ECD brain SPECT.

METHODS

Twenty normal volunteers (35.4 +/- 9.1 yr) each had six ECD scans at 30, 60, 120, 240, 360 and 480 min postinjection. Each scan was acquired for 24 min using a triple-head SPECT system. Average counts per pixel were measured from frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital, cerebellum, basal ganglia, thalamus and white matter regions. ECD clearance rates were calculated by fitting regional time activity data to a monoexponential equation. Regional gray-to-white matter (G/W) and gray-to-cerebellum (G/C) ratios were calculated for each scan. Analysis of variance was used to compare regional ECD clearance and ratio measurements.

RESULTS

The average ECD clearance was 4.3%/hr. There was a significant regional variation in the ECD clearance, being higher for occipital (6.34%/hr) but lower for both white matter (2.39%/hr) and thalamus (2.45%/hr). Both G/W and G/C ratios showed a significant regional variation with time. The overall G/W ratio was 2.13 at 30 min and became progressively lower after 2 hr, reaching 1.78 at 8 hr. All regional G/W ratios declined with time except for thalamus where it remained constant at 2.15. The overall G/C ratio was 0.984 at 30 min but it declined after 4 hr, reaching 0.955 at 8 hr. All regional G/C ratios declined with time except for thalamus where it increased progressively from 0.955 to 1.120 at 8 hr.

CONCLUSION

ECD clears from normal brain slowly and shows a significant regional variation. As a result, G/W contrast begins to decrease after 2 hr and the gray-matter activity pattern becomes significantly different after 4 hr. Therefore, the optimal imaging time may be between 30-120 min. However, images obtained up to 4 hr still maintain the initial gray-matter activity pattern.

Using Medicaid fee-for-service data to develop community health center policy

This article presents an analysis of fee-for-service Medicaid data for King County, Washington. This analysis was conducted using Department of Social and Health Services billing records for patients of the community health centers of Seattle-King County (14 primary care sites), the Seattle-King County Department of Public Health (9 primary care sites), and Harborview Medical Center (a large tertiary facility with a primary care outpatient clinic associated with the University of Washington) from January through June, 1992. The complete billing records of all patients who utilized any one of the 24 sites were made available. These records were used to review utilization patterns and patient costs. The implications for community health centers regarding Medicaid managed care, health care reform, and population-based management are discussed.

NMDA receptor antagonists inhibit catalepsy induced by either dopamine D1 or D2 receptor antagonists

In the present study, we investigated the ability of NMDA receptor antagonists to inhibit catalepsy induced by haloperidol, or SCH23390 and clebopride, selective dopamine D1 and D2 receptor antagonists respectively. Catalepsy was measured by recording the time the animal remained with its forepaws placed over a rod 6 cm above the bench. Pretreatment with either the non-competitive NMDA receptor antagonist, MK-801 (0.25-0.5 mg/kg i.p.) or the competitive antagonist, LY274614 (10-20 mg/kg i.p.) reduced the cataleptic response produced by haloperidol (10 mg/kg), SCH23390 (2.5-10 mg/kp i.p.) or clebopride (5-20 mg/kg i.p.). This demonstrates that NMDA receptor antagonists will reduce both dopamine D1 and D2 receptor antagonist-induced catalepsy. Muscle relaxant doses of chlordiazepoxide (10 mg/kg i.p.) failed to reduce the catalepsy induced by haloperidol, suggesting that the anticataleptic effect of the NMDA receptor antagonists was not due to a non-specific action. These results support the hypothesis that NMDA receptor antagonists may have beneficial effects in disorders involving reduced dopaminergic function, such as Parkinson's disease.

Alcohol abuse and attention deficit disorder

The prevalence of alcohol abuse among the fathers, and ADD in family members, of 22 adult psychiatric patients with persistent attention deficit disorder was found to be significantly higher than in 20 matched controls. Further research is necessary to determine the reasons for, and clinical implications of, these associations.

Pacific Pleistocene Cores: Faunal Analyses and Geochronology

Two cores from the eastern Pacific were analyzed faunally and dated by the ionium: thorium method. Comparison of the results of these and of similar studies of Atlantic cores indicate that faunal changes, representing changes between the glacial and interglacial stages of the Pleistocene, occurred in both oceans simultaneously.