Hydrogen sulfide mitigates skeletal muscle mitophagy-led tissue remodeling via epigenetic regulation of the gene writer and eraser function

Ketone bodies (KB) serve as the food for mitochondrial biogenetics. Interestingly, probiotics are known to promote KB formation in the gut (especially those that belong to the Lactobacillus genus). Furthermore, Lactobacillus helps produce folate that lowers the levels of homocysteine (Hcy); a hallmark non-proteinogenic amino acid that defines the importance of epigenetics, and its landscape. In this study, we decided to test whether hydrogen sulfide (H₂ S), another Hcy lowering agent regulates the epigenetic gene writer DNA methyltransferase (DNMT), eraser FTO and TET2, and thus mitigates the skeletal muscle remodeling. We treated hyperhomocysteinemic (HHcy, cystathionine beta-synthase heterozygote knockout; CBS^+/- ) mice with NaHS (the H₂ S donor). The results suggested multi-organ damage by HHcy in the CBS^+/- mouse strain compared with WT control mice (CBS^+/+ ). H₂ S treatment abrogated most of the HHcy-induced damage. The levels of gene writer (DNMT2) and H3K9 (methylation) were higher in the CBS^+/- mice, and the H₂ S treatment normalized their levels. More importantly, the levels of eraser FTO, TET, and associated GADD45, and MMP-13 were decreased in the CBS^+/- mice; however, H₂ S treatment mitigated their respective decrease. These events were associated with mitochondrial fission, i.e., an increase in DRP1, and mitophagy. Although the MMP-2 level was lower in CBS^+/- compared to WT but H₂ S could further lower it in the CBS^+/- mice. The MMPs levels were associated with an increase in interstitial fibrosis in the CBS^+/- skeletal muscle. Due to fibrosis, the femoral artery blood flow was reduced in the CBS^+/- mice, and that was normalized by H₂ S. The bone and muscle strengths were found to be decreased in the CBS^+/- mice but the H₂ S treatment normalized skeletal muscle strength in the CBS^+/- mice. Our findings suggest that H₂ S mitigates the mitophagy-led skeletal muscle remodeling via epigenetic regulation of the gene writer and eraser function.

P-707 RCT of Dual-Triger (GnRH-Agonist & hCG) versus hCG-Trigger alone for Normal Responders in IVF-ICSI Cycles

Study question

Does Dual Triger with GnRH-Agonist with hCG in IVF-ICSI cycles in normal responders improve oocyte quality and pregnancy outcome compared to Triger with hCG alone?

Summary answer

Yes, Dual Triger with GnRH-Agonist with hCG in IVF-ICSI cycles in normal responders improve oocyte quality and pregnancy outcome compared to Triger with hCG alone.

What is known already

Dual-Triggering for final oocyte maturation combining GnRH-Agonist with hCG can improve clinical outcomes in high responders during IVF–ICSI cycles. .

However, there is insufficient evidence regarding the impact of a Dual-Trigger on the reproductive outcome in normal responders.

Some studies reported a significantly improved ongoing pregnancy rate and live-birth rate in fresh-embryo-transfer cycles for a dual-trigger group compared with the hCG-trigger group in normal responders . By contrast, several studies have demonstrated that dual trigger of oocyte maturation was not associated with a change in the live-birth rate in FET cycles for normal ovarian responders .

Study design, size, duration

RCT of 214 patients of IVF-ICSI Cycles between 2016 - 2020 were included in the study .The inclusion criteria in the study were: Age < 40 years, AMH >1 ng/ml, AFC : 07-20 and FSH <10 IU/l.

The exclusion criteria were Poor-Ovarian-Reserve (Low-AMH <1 ng/ml) and patients at high-risk of developing OHSS (High-AMH >07 or AFC >20). Recombinant-FSH dose was adjusted according to E2 levels and follicular monitoring along with a flexible GnRH-Antagonist-Protocol.

Participants/materials, setting, methods

RCT of 214 patients of IVF-ICSI Cycles between 2016-2020 were included in the study and were divided in two groups.

Administration of the GnRH-antagonist was initiated based on a flexible protocol and final oocyte-maturation was triggered either by hCG alone (contol group) or by combining GnRH-Agonist with hCG (2000 IU) (study group).Data on number of oocytes retrieved, number of mature (MII) oocytes, embryos and blastocysts and clinical pregnancy rate were assessed and compared.

Main results and the role of chance

The Implantation-Rate (16% versus 33%) and the Clinical-Pregnancy-Rate per patient (18% versus 38%) were significantly higher in the Dual Triger of GnRH-Agonist with hCG study group, compaired to contol group of Triger with hCG alone.

Dual-trigger approach appears superior to an hCG trigger alone with regard to the number of top-quality embryos produced.

Final oocyte maturation is the key step in ART cycles and Human-Chorionic-Gonadotropin (hCG) alone has been used for final oocyte maturation for many years and has been demonstrated to promote an increased pregnancy rate. However, the administration of hCG for final oocyte maturation results in supraphysiologic steroid levels in the luteal phase due to its long half-life and is consequently associated with an increased risk of OHSS. The hCG trigger may have negative impacts on endometrial receptivity and embryo quality .

The GnRH-Agonist trigger benefits the induction of both an FSH and an LH surge and the possibility of retrieving more mature MII oocytes than is expected with an hCG trigger . Drawback of a GnRHa trigger was LH depletion and the withdrawal of LH support of the corpus luteum , however this problem has been overcome with intensive luteal phase support (LPS) and luteal-phase hCG administration .

Limitations, reasons for caution

The present study did not include a third arm of patients who were triggered with GnRH-Agonist alone.

If we had added the third arm, we would have been able to test whether it was the administration of GnRH-Agonist or the co-administration of GnRH-Agonist and hCG that improved the outcome .

Wider implications of the findings

We conclude that using the dual trigger for final follicular maturation in normal responder increases the number of good quality mature MII oocytes and top-quality blastocysts compared to triggering with hCG alone.

The increase in the number of good quality blastocysts improved the outcome of the IVF-CSI cycle in normal responders.

Trial registration number

not applicable

Virulence and antimicrobial resistance gene profiles of Staphylococcus aureus associated with clinical mastitis in cattle

Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus) is the most prevalent microorganism associated with mastitis in cattle, which harbours several virulence factors and antibiotic resistance genes. The present study aimed to characterize S. aureus isolated from mastitic milk of the cattle for antibiotic resistance (blaZ and mecA), haemolysins (hla and hlb) and enterotoxins (sea, seb, sec, and sed) genes. A total of 69 staphylococci were isolated and phenotypically characterized for haemolytic properties on 5% sheep blood agar medium. Out of 69 isolates, 55 (79.71%) were identified as S. aureus by polymerase chain reaction assay. Among S. aureus, the majority of the isolates harboured the gene blaZ (92.73%), followed by coa (89.09%), hlb (60%) and hla (49.09%). Gene mecA responsible for methicillin resistance was detected in 23.64% of S. aureus isolates. Enterotoxin genes seb (9.09%), sec (1.82%) and sed (7.27%) responsible for food poisoning were detected at a comparatively lower rate and none of the S. aureus strain was found positive for sea. Additionally, antimicrobial susceptibility study of S. aureus against 18 antimicrobial discs showed maximum resistance to oxytetracycline, penicillin, and fluoroquinolone groups, contrarily, we observed maximum sensitivity to methicillin and cefuroxime antimicrobials. The high occurrence rate of S. aureus harbouring genes for virulence factors and antimicrobial resistance needs appropriate strategies to control the pathogen spread to the human population.

Textbook outcome following oesophagectomy for cancer: international cohort study

Background

Textbook outcome has been proposed as a tool for the assessment of oncological surgical care. However, an international assessment in patients undergoing oesophagectomy for oesophageal cancer has not been reported. This study aimed to assess textbook outcome in an international setting.

Methods

Patients undergoing curative resection for oesophageal cancer were identified from the international Oesophagogastric Anastomosis Audit (OGAA) from April 2018 to December 2018. Textbook outcome was defined as the percentage of patients who underwent a complete tumour resection with at least 15 lymph nodes in the resected specimen and an uneventful postoperative course, without hospital readmission. A multivariable binary logistic regression model was used to identify factors independently associated with textbook outcome, and results are presented as odds ratio (OR) and 95 per cent confidence intervals (95 per cent c.i.).

Results

Of 2159 patients with oesophageal cancer, 39.7 per cent achieved a textbook outcome. The outcome parameter ‘no major postoperative complication’ had the greatest negative impact on a textbook outcome for patients with oesophageal cancer, compared to other textbook outcome parameters. Multivariable analysis identified male gender and increasing Charlson comorbidity index with a significantly lower likelihood of textbook outcome. Presence of 24-hour on-call rota for oesophageal surgeons (OR 2.05, 95 per cent c.i. 1.30 to 3.22; P = 0.002) and radiology (OR 1.54, 95 per cent c.i. 1.05 to 2.24; P = 0.027), total minimally invasive oesophagectomies (OR 1.63, 95 per cent c.i. 1.27 to 2.08; P < 0.001), and chest anastomosis above azygous (OR 2.17, 95 per cent c.i. 1.58 to 2.98; P < 0.001) were independently associated with a significantly increased likelihood of textbook outcome.

Conclusion

Textbook outcome is achieved in less than 40 per cent of patients having oesophagectomy for cancer. Improvements in centralization, hospital resources, access to minimal access surgery, and adoption of newer techniques for improving lymph node yield could improve textbook outcome.

Textbook outcome following oesophagectomy for cancer: international cohort study

BACKGROUND

Textbook outcome has been proposed as a tool for the assessment of oncological surgical care. However, an international assessment in patients undergoing oesophagectomy for oesophageal cancer has not been reported. This study aimed to assess textbook outcome in an international setting.

METHODS

Patients undergoing curative resection for oesophageal cancer were identified from the international Oesophagogastric Anastomosis Audit (OGAA) from April 2018 to December 2018. Textbook outcome was defined as the percentage of patients who underwent a complete tumour resection with at least 15 lymph nodes in the resected specimen and an uneventful postoperative course, without hospital readmission. A multivariable binary logistic regression model was used to identify factors independently associated with textbook outcome, and results are presented as odds ratio (OR) and 95 per cent confidence intervals (95 per cent c.i.).

RESULTS

Of 2159 patients with oesophageal cancer, 39.7 per cent achieved a textbook outcome. The outcome parameter 'no major postoperative complication' had the greatest negative impact on a textbook outcome for patients with oesophageal cancer, compared to other textbook outcome parameters. Multivariable analysis identified male gender and increasing Charlson comorbidity index with a significantly lower likelihood of textbook outcome. Presence of 24-hour on-call rota for oesophageal surgeons (OR 2.05, 95 per cent c.i. 1.30 to 3.22; P = 0.002) and radiology (OR 1.54, 95 per cent c.i. 1.05 to 2.24; P = 0.027), total minimally invasive oesophagectomies (OR 1.63, 95 per cent c.i. 1.27 to 2.08; P < 0.001), and chest anastomosis above azygous (OR 2.17, 95 per cent c.i. 1.58 to 2.98; P < 0.001) were independently associated with a significantly increased likelihood of textbook outcome.

CONCLUSION

Textbook outcome is achieved in less than 40 per cent of patients having oesophagectomy for cancer. Improvements in centralization, hospital resources, access to minimal access surgery, and adoption of newer techniques for improving lymph node yield could improve textbook outcome.

Structure and DNA binding analysis of AT ‐rich interaction domain present in human BAF‐B specific subunit BAF250b

BAF250b and its paralog BAF250a are the DNA-binding central hub proteins present in BAF-B and BAF-A classes of SWI/SNF chromatin-remodeling complexes. BAF250b contains an AT-rich interaction domain (ARID) and C-terminal BAF250_C domain, and it is found mutated in several cancers. ARID is a conserved helix-turn-helix motif-containing DNA-binding domain present in several eukaryotic proteins. The ARID of BAF250b has been proposed to play roles in recruiting SWI/SNF to the target gene promoters for their activation. BAF250b ARID structures had been deposited in the protein data bank by a structural genomics consortium. However, it is not well-studied for its DNA-binding and solution dynamic properties. Here, we report complete backbone NMR resonance assignments of human BAF250b ARID. NMR chemical shifts and the backbone dynamics showed that the solution structure of the protein matched the reported crystal structures. The structure and chemical shift indexing revealed the presence of a short β-sheet in the DNA-binding region of BAF250b ARID that was absent in the structure of its paralog BAF250a ARID. NMR chemical shift perturbations identified DNA-binding residues and revealed the DNA-binding interface on BAF250b ARID. NMR data-driven HADDOCK models of BAF250b ARID - DNA complexes revealed its plausible mode of DNA-binding. Isothermal titration calorimetry experiments showed that BAF250b ARID interacts with DNA sequences with moderate affinities like BAF250a ARID. However, distinct thermodynamic signatures were observed for binding of BAF250a ARID and BAF250b ARID to AT-rich DNA sequence, suggesting that subtle sequence and structural differences in these two proteins influence their DNA-binding.

Immuno-Diagnosis of Active Tuberculosis by a Combination of Cytokines/Chemokines Induced by Two Stage-Specific Mycobacterial Antigens: A Pilot Study in a Low TB Incidence Country

Active tuberculosis (aTB) remains a major killer from infectious disease, partially due to delayed diagnosis and hence treatment. Classical microbiological methods are slow and lack sensitivity, molecular techniques are costly and often unavailable. Moreover, available immuno-diagnostic tests lack sensitivity and do not differentiate between aTB and latent TB infection (LTBI). Here, we evaluated the performance of the combined measurement of different chemokines/cytokines induced by two different stage-specific mycobacterial antigens, Early-secreted-antigenic target-6 (ESAT-6) and Heparin-binding-haemagglutinin (HBHA), after a short in vitro incubation of either peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) or whole blood (WB). Blood samples were collected from a training cohort comprising 22 aTB patients, 22 LTBI subjects and 17 non-infected controls. The concentrations of 13 cytokines were measured in the supernatants. Random forest analysis identified the best markers to differentiate M. tuberculosis-infected from non-infected subjects, and the most appropriate markers to differentiate aTB from LTBI. Logistic regression defined predictive abilities of selected combinations of cytokines, first on the training and then on a validation cohort (17 aTB, 27 LTBI, 25 controls). Combining HBHA- and ESAT-6-induced IFN-γ concentrations produced by PBMC was optimal to differentiate infected from non-infected individuals in the training cohort (100% correct classification), but 2/16 (13%) patients with aTB were misclassified in the validation cohort. ESAT-6-induced-IP-10 combined with HBHA-induced-IFN-γ concentrations was selected to differentiate aTB from LTBI, and correctly classified 82%/77% of infected subjects as aTB or LTBI in the training/validation cohorts, respectively. Results obtained on WB also selected ESAT-6- and HBHA-induced IFN-γ concentrations to provided discrimination between infected and non-infected subjects (89%/90% correct classification in the training/validation cohorts). Further identification of aTB patients among infected subjects was best achieved by combining ESAT-6-induced IP-10 with HBHA-induced IL-2 and GM-CSF. Among infected subjects, 90%/93% of the aTB patients were correctly identified in the training/validation cohorts. We therefore propose a two steps strategy performed on 1 mL WB for a rapid identification of patients with aTB. After elimination of most non-infected subjects by combining ESAT-6 and HBHA-induced IFN-γ, the combination of IP-10, IL-2 and GM-CSF released by either ESAT-6 or HBHA correctly identifies most patients with aTB.

Resonance assignment and secondary structure of the tandem harmonin homology domains of human RTEL1

Regulator of telomere elongation helicase 1 (RTEL1) is an Fe-S cluster containing DNA helicase that plays important roles in telomere DNA maintenance, DNA repair, and genomic stability. It is a modular protein comprising an N-terminal helicase domain, two tandem harmonin homology domains 1 & 2 (HHD1 and HHD2), and a C-terminal C4C4 type RING domain. The N-terminal helicase domain disassembles the telomere t/D-loop and unwinds the G-quadruplex via its helicase activity. The C-terminal RING domain interacts with telomere DNA binding protein TRF2 and helps RTEL1 recruitment to the telomere. The tandem HHD1 and HHD2 are characterized as a putative protein-protein interaction domain and have recently been shown to interact with a DNA repair protein SLX4. Several mutations associated with Hoyeraal-Hreidarsson syndrome and pulmonary fibrosis have been found in HHD1 and HHD2 of RTEL1. However, these domains have not been characterized for their structures. We have expressed and purified HHD1 and HHD2 of human RTEL1 for their characterization using solution NMR spectroscopy. Here, we report near complete backbone and sidechain ¹H, ¹³C and ¹⁵N chemical shift assignments and secondary structure of the HHD1 and HHD2 domains of human RTEL1.

Studies on intra-ocular vaccination of adult cattle with reduced dose Brucella abortus strain-19 vaccine

Brucella abortus vaccines play a central role in bovine brucellosis control with tremendous success worldwide for decades. The study was aimed to evaluate the efficacy of reduced dose (5.0 × 10 9 cfu) of S19 vaccine in adult cattle and its shedding in the milk of vaccinated cattle using molecular techniques. The OIE recommended tests (RBPT, SAT, and iELISA) for brucellosis screening in cattle were used. Seronegative cattle (n = 90) of different age groups (young, old heifers & milking cows, n = 30 each) were selected for the vaccine trials. Antibody titers were recorded at 7th, 21st, 30th, 60th, 90th and 120th days post-vaccination (DPV) to monitor the immune responses following vaccination and at 150th, 180th, 210th and 240th DPB following booster-dose to an intraocular group. The humoral immune responses observed by RBPT and ELISA, proved that antibody titers persisted in s/c group compared to the i/o group in all categories. The IFN-γ stimulation (CMI) due to reduced dose vaccination was noticed early as 30th in all groups and declined after 90th DPV, with higher IFN-γ stimulation among the s/c group. The Bcsp31 and IS711 targeted PCR detected the presence of Brucella DNA in milk samples (n = 120) from the vaccinated cows (n = 30) and confirmed by qPCR (TaqMan assay) at 30th, 60th, 90th and 120th DPV. A Significant number, 70% (7/10) was detected in s/c by qPCR. BCSP31 sequence was deposited at NCBI GenBank (accession no. MK881173-6). PCR and qPCR techniques could provide a reliable diagnosis of brucellosis from milk. The intraocular route remains the safer route for vaccinating adult cattle than subcutaneous.

Concurrent evaluation of cytokines improves the accuracy of antibodies against Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens in the diagnosis of active tuberculosis

BACKGROUND

Antibodies against mycobacterial proteins are highly specific, but lack sensitivity, whereas cytokines have been shown to be sensitive but not very specific in the diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). We assessed combinations between antibodies and cytokines for diagnosing TB.

METHODS

Immuoglubulin (Ig) A and IgM antibody titres against selected mycobacterial antigens including Apa, NarL, Rv3019c, PstS1, LAM, "Kit 1" (MTP64 and Tpx)", and "Kit 2" (MPT64, Tpx and 19 kDa) were evaluated by ELISA in plasma samples obtained from individuals under clinical suspicion for TB. Combinations between the antibody titres and previously published cytokine responses in the same participants were assessed for diagnosing active TB.

RESULTS

Antibody responses were more promising when used in combination (AUC of 0.80), when all seven antibodies were combined. When anti-"Kit 1"-IgA levels were combined with five host cytokine biomarkers, the AUC increased to 97% (92-100%) with a sensitivity of 95% (95% CI, 73-100%), and specificity of 88.5% (95% CI, 68.7-97%) achieved after leave-one-out cross validation.

CONCLUSION

When used in combination, IgA titres measured with ELISA against multiple Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens may be useful in the diagnosis of TB. However, diagnostic accuracy may be improved if the antibodies are used in combination with cytokines.

Supplemental aerobic, anaerobic and strength training positively affects autonomic functioning, anaerobic capacity, and immune cell homeostasis of male judo athletes

The present study aimed to investigate the effect of additional package of aerobic, anaerobic and strength training (AAS training), along with the conventional judo specific training, on autonomic nervous system balance, anaerobic capacity, exercise adaptation, phenotype of different blood mononuclear cells and cellular inflammatory signalling of university judo athletes. Thirty male judokas were randomly allocated to a control group/conventional judo specific training group (performing Uchi-komi, Nage komi, and Randori) or to an experimental group/conventional judo specific training + additional AAS training group. Physiological data including recovery ANS variables and anaerobic capacity were obtained by using wireless heart rate variability and anaerobic cycle ergometer, respectively, at two different time points (T1-pre, T3-post). Serum and primary mononuclear cells were prepared at three different time points (T1-pre, T2-acute, T3-post) and processed further as per the experimental requirement. For measuring the expression level of genes, and proteins biomarkers related to immune health, we have performed advanced qPCR array technique, flow cytometry, ELISA and zymosan-fluorescein assays. The additional training modality enhanced athletes’ anaerobic performance, parasympathetic functioning, and exercise adaptation. On the other hand, it decreased fatigue index, stress index, number of reactive immune cells, and intensity of inflammatory signalling. Overall, the present study, for the very first time, exhibited the positive effect of four weeks long additional AAS training on autonomic functioning, anaerobic capacity, and immune cell homeostasis of male judo athletes. This additional training package might also help the judo coaches to optimise training schedule for the competitive session.

Identification, functional characterization, assembly and structure of ToxIN type III toxin-antitoxin complex from E. coli

Toxin–antitoxin (TA) systems are proposed to play crucial roles in bacterial growth under stress conditions such as phage infection. The type III TA systems consist of a protein toxin whose activity is inhibited by a noncoding RNA antitoxin. The toxin is an endoribonuclease, while the antitoxin consists of multiple repeats of RNA. The toxin assembles with the individual antitoxin repeats into a cyclic complex in which the antitoxin forms a pseudoknot structure. While structure and functions of some type III TA systems are characterized, the complex assembly process is not well understood. Using bioinformatics analysis, we have identified type III TA systems belonging to the ToxIN family across different Escherichia coli strains and found them to be clustered into at least five distinct clusters. Furthermore, we report a 2.097 Å resolution crystal structure of the first E. coli ToxIN complex that revealed the overall assembly of the protein-RNA complex. Isothermal titration calorimetry experiments showed that toxin forms a high-affinity complex with antitoxin RNA resulting from two independent (5′ and 3′ sides of RNA) RNA binding sites on the protein. These results further our understanding of the assembly of type III TA complexes in bacteria.

Introducing Clinical Pathology Course to Fourth Year Medical Students as a Bridge between Pre-clinical and Clinical Medical Sciences

There isn't any vertical integration of pre-clinical and clinical sciences subjects in the existing Kathmandu University MBBS curriculum. Many of the graduates are not able to correlate the clinico-pathological aspects of various diseases as a result the rational use of investigations for diagnosing various diseases is compromised. There are few published examples of implementation of pathology instruction courses during the clinical years of medical training but it is not universally practiced. This lack of exposure to pathology may lead to poor understanding of laboratory testing and the role of pathologists in patient care. To set and implement an exemplary vertical integration of pre-clinical science with clinical science. A 12 credit hours clinical pathology education course comprising clinical hematology, cytopathology and histopathology was developed. Students belonging from the ongoing fourth year MBBS course of Birat Medical College were enrolled in the course. All of the interactive lecture sessions were delivered via an e-learning interface, using the Zoom platform as the main teaching methods. Evaluation of students' achievement of learning objectives was conducted through distributing pre and post-test online multiple-choice questionnaires. Chi-square tests were used to compare the variables between pre-test and post-test questionnaire responses. Results suggested that the designed clinical pathology course is valuable. The pretest and post-test questionnaire responses revealed the positive impact regarding the importance of introducing clinical pathology courses within the clinical year of MBBS undergraduate curriculum. Response rate to the online session was 100%. The point of agreement between the pre-test and post-test questionnaire responses were highly achieved after intervention of the clinical pathology course. A statistically significant result (p < 0.05) between all of the pre-test and post-test questionnaire responses was noted. There was a strong positive recommendation for incorporating clinical laboratory medicine courses within the MBBS clinical science curriculum. The improvement observed among fourth-year MBBS students on learning the importance of clinical pathology courses was encouraging. This experience thus contributed to set and implement an exemplary vertical integration of pre-clinical science with clinical science.

STATIN trial: predictive performance of competing-risks model in screening for pre-eclampsia at 35-37 weeks' gestation

OBJECTIVE

To examine the predictive performance of a previously reported competing-risks model of screening for pre-eclampsia (PE) at 35-37 weeks' gestation by combinations of maternal risk factors, mean arterial pressure (MAP), uterine artery pulsatility index (UtA-PI), serum placental growth factor (PlGF) and serum soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase-1 (sFlt-1) in a validation dataset derived from the screened population of the STATIN study.

METHODS

This was a prospective third-trimester multicenter study of screening for PE in singleton pregnancies by means of a previously reported algorithm that combines maternal risk factors and biomarkers. Women in the high-risk group were invited to participate in a trial of pravastatin vs placebo, but the trial showed no evidence of an effect of pravastatin in the prevention of PE. Patient-specific risks of delivery with PE were calculated using the competing-risks model, and the performance of screening for PE by maternal risk factors alone and by various combinations of risk factors with MAP, UtA-PI, PlGF and sFlt-1 was assessed. The predictive performance of the model was examined by, first, the ability of the model to discriminate between the PE and no-PE groups using the area under the receiver-operating-characteristics curve (AUC) and the detection rate at a fixed false-positive rate of 10%, and, second, calibration by measurements of calibration slope and calibration-in-the-large.

RESULTS

The study population of 29 677 pregnancies contained 653 that developed PE. In screening for PE by a combination of maternal risk factors, MAP, PlGF and sFlt-1 (triple test), the detection rate at a 10% false-positive rate was 79% (95% CI, 76-82%) and the results were consistent with the data used for developing the algorithm. Addition of UtA-PI did not improve the prediction provided by the triple test. The AUC for the triple test was 0.923 (95% CI, 0.913-0.932), demonstrating very high discrimination between affected and unaffected pregnancies. Similarly, the calibration slope was 0.875 (95% CI, 0.831-0.919), demonstrating good agreement between the predicted risk and observed incidence of PE.

CONCLUSION

The competing-risks model provides an effective and reproducible method for third-trimester prediction of term PE. © 2021 International Society of Ultrasound in Obstetrics and Gynecology.

1,3,4-Thiadiazole Derivatives as an Antimicrobial: An Update

Persistent and uncontrolled use of antibiotics results in development of bacterial resistant. The situation is getting worsen day by day and scientists are investigating thousands of potentially active drugs like molecule in laboratories around the world every day in search of effective antibiotics. During last decade considerable attention was given to five-member heterocyclic moieties while designing new antimicrobial agents. One of important heterocycle is five-membered 1,3,4-thiadiazole with unique bioisosteric properties displaying unusually wide spectrum of biological activities. This comprehensive review represent the recent 1,3,4-thiadiazole and its derivatives, which can be considered as potential antimicrobial agents in the period of 2015 and onwards. This review may help the medicinal chemists to develop new leads possessing 1,3,4-thiadiazole nucleus with higher efficacy and reduced side effects.

Mechanism of Blood-Heart-Barrier Leakage: Implications for COVID-19 Induced Cardiovascular Injury

Although blood–heart-barrier (BHB) leakage is the hallmark of congestive (cardio-pulmonary) heart failure (CHF), the primary cause of death in elderly, and during viral myocarditis resulting from the novel coronavirus variants such as the severe acute respiratory syndrome novel corona virus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) known as COVID-19, the mechanism is unclear. The goal of this project is to determine the mechanism of the BHB in CHF. Endocardial endothelium (EE) is the BHB against leakage of blood from endocardium to the interstitium; however, this BHB is broken during CHF. Previous studies from our laboratory, and others have shown a robust activation of matrix metalloproteinase-9 (MMP-9) during CHF. MMP-9 degrades the connexins leading to EE dysfunction. We demonstrated juxtacrine coupling of EE with myocyte and mitochondria (Mito) but how it works still remains at large. To test whether activation of MMP-9 causes EE barrier dysfunction, we hypothesized that if that were the case then treatment with hydroxychloroquine (HCQ) could, in fact, inhibit MMP-9, and thus preserve the EE barrier/juxtacrine signaling, and synchronous endothelial-myocyte coupling. To determine this, CHF was created by aorta-vena cava fistula (AVF) employing the mouse as a model system. The sham, and AVF mice were treated with HCQ. Cardiac hypertrophy, tissue remodeling-induced mitochondrial-myocyte, and endothelial-myocyte contractions were measured. Microvascular leakage was measured using FITC-albumin conjugate. The cardiac function was measured by echocardiography (Echo). Results suggest that MMP-9 activation, endocardial endothelial leakage, endothelial-myocyte (E-M) uncoupling, dyssynchronous mitochondrial fusion-fission (Mfn2/Drp1 ratio), and mito-myocyte uncoupling in the AVF heart failure were found to be rampant; however, treatment with HCQ successfully mitigated some of the deleterious cardiac alterations during CHF. The findings have direct relevance to the gamut of cardiac manifestations, and the resultant phenotypes arising from the ongoing complications of COVID-19 in human subjects.

BpOmpW Antigen Stimulates the Necessary Protective T-Cell Responses Against Melioidosis

Melioidosis is a potentially fatal bacterial disease caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei and is estimated to cause 89,000 deaths per year in endemic areas of Southeast Asia and Northern Australia. People with diabetes mellitus are most at risk of melioidosis, with a 12-fold increased susceptibility for severe disease. Interferon gamma (IFN-γ) responses from CD4 and CD8 T cells, but also from natural killer (NK) and natural killer T (NKT) cells, are necessary to eliminate the pathogen. We previously reported that immunization with B. pseudomallei OmpW (BpOmpW antigen) protected mice from lethal B. pseudomallei challenge for up to 81 days. Elucidating the immune correlates of protection of the protective BpOmpW vaccine is an essential step prior to clinical trials. Thus, we immunized either non-insulin-resistant C57BL/6J mice or an insulin-resistant C57BL/6J mouse model of type 2 diabetes (T2D) with a single dose of BpOmpW. BpOmpW induced strong antibody responses, stimulated effector CD4+ and CD8+ T cells and CD4+ CD25+ Foxp3+ regulatory T cells, and produced higher IFN-γ responses in CD4+, CD8+, NK, and NKT cells in non-insulin-resistant mice. The T-cell responses of insulin-resistant mice to BpOmpW were comparable to those of non-insulin-resistant mice. In addition, as a precursor to its evaluation in human studies, humanized HLA-DR and HLA-DQ (human leukocyte antigen DR and DQ isotypes, respectively) transgenic mice elicited IFN-γ recall responses in an enzyme-linked immune absorbent spot (ELISpot)-based study. Moreover, human donor peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) exposed to BpOmpW for 7 days showed T-cell proliferation. Finally, plasma from melioidosis survivors with diabetes recognized our BpOmpW vaccine antigen. Overall, the range of approaches used strongly indicated that BpOmpW elicits the necessary immune responses to combat melioidosis and bring this vaccine closer to clinical trials.

Remote Hind-Limb Ischemia Mechanism of Preserved Ejection Fraction During Heart Failure

During acute heart failure (HF), remote ischemic conditioning (RIC) has proven to be beneficial; however, it is currently unclear whether it also extends benefits from chronic congestive, cardiopulmonary heart failure (CHF). Previous studies from our laboratory have shown three phases describing CHF viz. (1) HF with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), (2) HF with reduced EF (HFrEF), and (3) HF with reversed EF. Although reciprocal organ interaction, ablation of sympathetic, and calcium signaling genes are associated with HFpEF to HFrEF, the mechanism is unclear. The HFrEF ensues, in part, due to reduced angiogenesis, coronary reserve, and leakage of endocardial endothelial (EE) and finally breakdown of the blood-heart barrier (BHB) integrity. In fact, our hypothesis states that a change in phenotype from compensatory HFpEF to decompensatory HFrEF is determined by a potential decrease in regenerative, proangiogenic factors along with a concomitant increase in epigenetic memory, inflammation that combinedly causes oxidative, and proteolytic stress response. To test this hypothesis, we created CHF by aorta-vena-cava (AV) fistula in a group of mice that were subsequently treated with that of hind-limb RIC. HFpEF vs. HFrEF transition was determined by serial/longitudinal echo measurements. Results revealed an increase in skeletal muscle musclin contents, bone-marrow (CD71), and sympathetic activation (β2-AR) by RIC. We also observed a decrease in vascular density and attenuation of EE-BHB function due to a corresponding increase in the activity of MMP-2, vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), caspase, and calpain. This decrease was successfully mitigated by RIC-released skeletal muscle exosomes that contain musclin, the myokine along with bone marrow, and sympathetic activation. In short, based on proteome (omics) analysis, ∼20 proteins that appear to be involved in signaling pathways responsible for the synthesis, contraction, and relaxation of cardiac muscle were found to be the dominant features. Thus, our results support that the CHF phenotype causes dysfunction of cardiac metabolism, its contraction, and relaxation. Interestingly, RIC was able to mitigate many of the deleterious changes, as revealed by our multi-omics findings.

Post-cricoid and Upper Oesophagus Cancers Treated with Organ Preservation Using Intensity-modulated Image-guided Radiotherapy: a Phase II Prospective Study of Outcomes, Toxicity and Quality of Life

AIMS

To prospectively examine the outcomes, toxicity and quality of life (QoL) of patients with post-cricoid and upper oesophagus (PCUE) cancers treated with an organ-preservation approach of (chemo)-radiotherapy using intensity-modulated image-guided radiotherapy (IM-IGRT).

MATERIALS AND METHODS

This phase II prospective study was conducted at a tertiary cancer centre from February 2017 to January 2020. Forty patients with squamous cell carcinoma of PCUE of stage T1-3, N0-2, M0 were accrued. Gross exolaryngeal extension/dysfunctional larynx were major exclusion criteria. Patients received 63-66 Gy in once-daily fractions using volumetric modulated arc therapy with daily IGRT. Outcome measures included disease-related outcomes, patterns of failure, Radiation Therapy Oncology Group toxicities, feeding tube dependency and QoL.

RESULTS

The median follow-up was 22 months. Twenty-six (87.5%) patients had locoregionally advanced disease and 34 (85%) patients received (chemo)-radiotherapy. A complete response was observed in 26 (65%) patients. The 2-year locoregional control, event-free survival and cause-specific survival were 59.6%, 40.2% and 44.8%, respectively. The volume of primary tumour (GTVPvol) exceeding 28 cm³ had inferior overall survival (P = 0.005) on univariate analysis. Multivariable analysis showed GTVPvol and positron emission tomography-computed tomography maximum standardised uptake value to be independently predictive for event-free and overall survival. A feeding tube requirement at presentation was seen in 11 (27.5%) patients, whereas long-term feeding tube dependency at 6 months was seen in 10 (37%) patients. For QoL, a statistical improvement in pain, appetite loss and swallowing was observed over time.

CONCLUSION

Although the outcomes of PCUE cancers remain dismal, the use of state of the art diagnostic modalities, careful case selection and modern radiotherapy techniques improved outcomes as compared with before in this exclusive analysis of PCUE cancers.

Effect of type 1 tympanoplasty on the quality of life of patients suffering from chronic otitis media (safe type)

Background

Chronic otitis media (COM) remains a major public health issue and is associated with relentless discharge from the ear, pain, significant functional limitation of hearing, leading to communication problems and frequent specialist visits.

Aims

To assess the improvement in quality of life of patients of COM (safe type) and surgical success in terms of graft uptake and improvement in hearing.

Patients and Methods

A prospective questionnaire-based outcome study was directed in 100 patients with COM who were treated with Type I Tympanoplasty at our institution between May 2018 and May 2020. All patients were asked to fill Modified Chronic Otitis Media 4 (COM-4) survey before operation and 3 months after operation. Preoperative and postoperative total ear scores, audiological results, postoperative graft uptake were assessed.

Results

The correlation between preoperative and postoperative assessment by questionnaire was statistically critical (P < 0.001). There was significant improvement in hearing postoperatively (P < 0.001). Effective graft uptake was seen in 80%.

Conclusion

The current study emphasizes that Type 1 Tympanoplasty fundamentally improves quality of life of patients in terms of physical suffering, hearing loss, emotional distress postoperatively.

Postoperative outcomes in oesophagectomy with trainee involvement

BACKGROUND

The complexity of oesophageal surgery and the significant risk of morbidity necessitates that oesophagectomy is predominantly performed by a consultant surgeon, or a senior trainee under their supervision. The aim of this study was to determine the impact of trainee involvement in oesophagectomy on postoperative outcomes in an international multicentre setting.

METHODS

Data from the multicentre Oesophago-Gastric Anastomosis Study Group (OGAA) cohort study were analysed, which comprised prospectively collected data from patients undergoing oesophagectomy for oesophageal cancer between April 2018 and December 2018. Procedures were grouped by the level of trainee involvement, and univariable and multivariable analyses were performed to compare patient outcomes across groups.

RESULTS

Of 2232 oesophagectomies from 137 centres in 41 countries, trainees were involved in 29.1 per cent of them (n = 650), performing only the abdominal phase in 230, only the chest and/or neck phases in 130, and all phases in 315 procedures. For procedures with a chest anastomosis, those with trainee involvement had similar 90-day mortality, complication and reoperation rates to consultant-performed oesophagectomies (P = 0.451, P = 0.318, and P = 0.382, respectively), while anastomotic leak rates were significantly lower in the trainee groups (P = 0.030). Procedures with a neck anastomosis had equivalent complication, anastomotic leak, and reoperation rates (P = 0.150, P = 0.430, and P = 0.632, respectively) in trainee-involved versus consultant-performed oesophagectomies, with significantly lower 90-day mortality in the trainee groups (P = 0.005).

CONCLUSION

Trainee involvement was not found to be associated with significantly inferior postoperative outcomes for selected patients undergoing oesophagectomy. The results support continued supervised trainee involvement in oesophageal cancer surgery.

Mobile versus fixed automated external defibrillators (AED deployment in a geographically dispersed population: analysis of the girona territori cardioprotegit project

Introduction/Aim

Public defibrillation doubles out-of-hospital cardiac arrest survival. However, the best way to provide public defibrillation coverage to geographically dispersed populations remains unknown. The aim of this study is to compare usage rates and effectivity between mobile versus fixed Automated External Defibrillators (AED).

Methods

This project is a prospective registry of the usage rate of public AED (542 fixed AED, 241 mobile AED) and the analysis of the electrocardiographic traces, from June 2011 until December 2019. We compared the usage rate, the proportion of shockable rhythms and defibrillation success between fixed versus mobile AED.

Results

Of 566 registered usages, we obtained 494 electrocardiographic traces, of which 108 (21%) were from fixed AED. The usage rate of fixed and mobile AED were 0.022use/AED-year and 0.177use/AED-year respectively. In Fixed AED group we observed a higher proportion of shockable rhythms (34.2% vs. 20.3%, p=0,01) and higher defibrillation success (79% vs. 63%, p=0,02). The proportion of patients with shockable rhythms who were transferred to a hospital were 62.1% and 50% in Fixed AED and Mobile AED group respectively (p=0,306).

Conclusions

In Fixed AED group we observed more shockable rhythms and higher defibrillation success rates. Mobile AED were 8 times more used.

Funding Acknowledgement

Type of funding sources: None.

Physiological and Pathological Roles of Aldose Reductase

Aldose reductase (AR) is an aldo-keto reductase that catalyzes the first step in the polyol pathway which converts glucose to sorbitol. Under normal glucose homeostasis the pathway represents a minor route of glucose metabolism that operates in parallel with glycolysis. However, during hyperglycemia the flux of glucose via the polyol pathway increases significantly, leading to excessive formation of sorbitol. The polyol pathway-driven accumulation of osmotically active sorbitol has been implicated in the development of secondary diabetic complications such as retinopathy, nephropathy, and neuropathy. Based on the notion that inhibition of AR could prevent these complications a range of AR inhibitors have been developed and tested; however, their clinical efficacy has been found to be marginal at best. Moreover, recent work has shown that AR participates in the detoxification of aldehydes that are derived from lipid peroxidation and their glutathione conjugates. Although in some contexts this antioxidant function of AR helps protect against tissue injury and dysfunction, the metabolic transformation of the glutathione conjugates of lipid peroxidation-derived aldehydes could also lead to the generation of reactive metabolites that can stimulate mitogenic or inflammatory signaling events. Thus, inhibition of AR could have both salutary and injurious outcomes. Nevertheless, accumulating evidence suggests that inhibition of AR could modify the effects of cardiovascular disease, asthma, neuropathy, sepsis, and cancer; therefore, additional work is required to selectively target AR inhibitors to specific disease states. Despite past challenges, we opine that a more gainful consideration of therapeutic modulation of AR activity awaits clearer identification of the specific role(s) of the AR enzyme in health and disease.

A Defined Antigen Skin Test for Diagnosis of Bovine Tuberculosis in Domestic Water Buffaloes (Bubalus bubalis)

Bovine tuberculosis (bTB) remains endemic in domestic water buffaloes (Bubalus bubalis) in India and elsewhere, with limited options for control other than testing and slaughter. The prescribed tuberculin skin tests with purified protein derivative (PPD) for diagnosis of bTB preclude the use of Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG)-based vaccination because of the antigenic cross-reactivity of vaccine strains with Mycobacterium bovis and related pathogenic members of the M. tuberculosis complex (MTBC). For the diagnosis of bTB in domestic water buffaloes, we here assessed a recently described defined-antigen skin test (DST) that comprises overlapping peptides representing the ESAT-6, CFP-10 and Rv3615c antigens, present in disease-causing members of the MTBC but missing in BCG strains. The performance characteristics of three doses (5, 10 or 20 μg/peptide) of the DST were assessed in natural tuberculin skin test reactor (n = 11) and non-reactor (n = 35) water buffaloes at an organized dairy farm in Hisar, India, and results were compared with the single intradermal skin test (SIT) using standard bovine tuberculin (PPD-B). The results showed a dose-dependent response of DST in natural reactor water buffaloes, although the SIT induced a significantly greater (P < 0.001) skin test response than the highest dose of DST used. However, using a cut-off of 2 mm or greater, the 5, 10, and 20 μg DST cocktail correctly classified eight, 10 and all 11 of the SIT-positive reactors, respectively, suggesting that the 20 μg DST cocktail has a diagnostic sensitivity (Se) of 1.0 (95% CI: 0.72-1.0) identical to that of the SIT. Importantly, none of the tested DST doses induced any measurable skin induration responses in the 35 SIT-negative animals, suggesting a specificity point estimate of 1.0 (95% CI: 0.9-1.0), also identical to that of the SIT and compares favorably with that of the comparative cervical test (Se = 0.85; 95% CI: 0.55-0.98). Overall, the results suggest that similar to tuberculin, the DST enables sensitive and specific diagnosis of bTB in water buffaloes. Future field trials to explore the utility of DST as a defined antigen replacement for tuberculin in routine surveillance programs and to enable BCG vaccination of water buffaloes are warranted.

Comparative evaluation of indirect-ELISA and DOT blot assay for serodetection of Mycoplasma gallisepticum and Mycoplasma synoviae antibodies in poultry

Avian mycoplasmosis, mainly caused by Mycoplasma gallisepticum (MG) and Mycoplasma synoviae (MS) is an economically important disease of the poultry industry. The present study was aimed to develop whole cell based indirect-ELISA (i-ELISA) and DOT blot assay (DOT-ELISA) as rapid, sensitive, specific and economical sero-detection tests for MG and MS. A total of 306 blood samples were collected from birds slaughtered at local meat shops of different districts of Haryana, India to detect MG and MS antibodies. Sonicated antigens prepared from freshly grown culture of MG and MS were used to develop i-ELISA and DOT blot assay. In i-ELISA, 50.32% and 61.76% serum samples were found to be positive for MG and MS antibodies, respectively. However in DOT blot assay, 41.83% and 53.92% serum samples were found positive for MG and MS antibodies, respectively. The relative diagnostic sensitivity and specificity of DOT-ELISA were measured considering i-ELISA as a reference test. The relative diagnostic sensitivity of the DOT blot assay was found to be 69.48% and 82.01%; whereas relative diagnostic specificity was 86.18% and 91.45% for the detection of MG and MS antibodies, respectively. The developed serological assays may be used as rapid and economical diagnostic tools for large scale screening of poultry sera for MG and MS antibodies.

Multi-objective Genetic Algorithm Based Deep Learning Model for Automated COVID-19 Detection Using Medical Image Data

Purpose

In early 2020, the world is amid a significant pandemic due to the novel coronavirus disease outbreak, commonly called the COVID-19. Coronavirus is a lung infection disease caused by the Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus 2 virus (SARS-CoV-2). Because of its high transmission rate, it is crucial to detect cases as soon as possible to effectively control the spread of this pandemic and treat patients in the early stages. RT-PCR-based kits are the current standard kits used for COVID-19 diagnosis, but these tests take much time despite their high precision. A faster automated diagnostic tool is required for the effective screening of COVID-19.

Methods

In this study, a new semi-supervised feature learning technique is proposed to screen COVID-19 patients using chest CT scans. The model proposed in this study uses a three-step architecture, consisting of a convolutional autoencoder based unsupervised feature extractor, a multi-objective genetic algorithm (MOGA) based feature selector, and a Bagging Ensemble of support vector machines based binary classifier. The proposed architecture has been designed to provide precise and robust diagnostics for binary classification (COVID vs.nonCOVID). A dataset of 1252 COVID-19 CT scan images, collected from 60 patients, has been used to train and evaluate the model.

Results

The best performing classifier within 127 ms per image achieved an accuracy of 98.79%, the precision of 98.47%, area under curve of 0.998, and an F1 score of 98.85% on 497 test images. The proposed model outperforms the current state of the art COVID-19 diagnostic techniques in terms of speed and accuracy.

Conclusion

The experimental results prove the superiority of the proposed methodology in comparison to existing methods.The study also comprehensively compares various feature selection techniques and highlights the importance of feature selection in medical image data problems.

LIODetect®TB-ST: Evaluation of novel blood test for a rapid diagnosis of active pulmonary and extra-pulmonary tuberculosis in IGRA confirmed patients

Because of the current limits of immunological tests in the diagnosis of tuberculosis there is a need to identify new and rapid tests that can be carried out on a large scale in endemic countries and useful in the identification of infected subjects, but also able to discriminate those with latent infection from subjects with active. We have taken into consideration and analysed the LIODetect®TB-ST Tuberculosis Rapid Test, a membrane test for the qualitative detection of specific IgG, IgA, and IgM antibodies against Mycobacterium tuberculosis, performed on serum, plasma, or whole blood.85 samples positive to QuantiFERON TB-GOLD PLUS test were processed using this test and the results obtained were concordant with clinical diagnosis.To our knowledge, the LIODetect®TB-ST Tuberculosis Rapid Test is the only test; that identifies active tuberculosis disease with high sensitivity and specificity and its use might be of help in the diagnosis of tuberculosis, especially in endemic countries.

P–347 A comparative RCT of Intrauterine-GCSF versus Subcutaneous-GCSF in Thin Endometrium in IVF-ICSI Cycles

Study question

Does GCSF by intrauterine route leads to better result in the treatment of thin endometrium as compared to GCSF by the subcutaneous route, in IVF-ICSI Cycles?

Summary answer

Yes, GCSF by intrauterine route leads to better result in the treatment of thin endometrium as compared to subcutaneous-GCSF, in ART Cycles?

What is known already

GCSF, is a member of the colony stimulating factor family of cytokines and growth factors. GCSF receptors are expressed in high concentration on dominant follicle, particularly at preovulatory stage.The endometrium also shows an increased expression of these receptors. GCSF concentration rises in the follicular fluid at the same time. Serum levels of GCSF are found to be in direct correlation with levels of GCSF in follicular fluid. Serum levels increase progressively from the day the embryo-transfer to the day of implantation. GCSF has been found to be beneficial in patients with thin endometrium and recurrent implantation failure.

Study design, size, duration

This was a RCT conducted between 2018–2019. 30 patients with thin endometrium were enrolled in each group. In either group, GCSF was given if endometrium was less than 7mm on day 14, maximum of two doses were administered. Patients undergoing frozen embryo transfer were recruited in the study, after meeting the inclusion and exclusion criteria. Primary outcome measured was increase in endometrium thickness and the secondary outcome was the clinical pregnancy rate and abortion-rate.

Participants/materials, setting, methods

60 patients with thin endometrium were randomly divided into two groups. Group A: Inj. GCSF (300 mcg/1 ml) subcutaneously on Day 14 onwards alternate days for two doses. Group B: Inj. GCSF (300 mcg/1 ml) instilled slowly into the uterine cavity using an intrauterine insemination (IUI) catheter under USG guidance. Endometrial thickness was assessed after 48 h. If endometrial thickness was found to be &lt; 7 mm, a second infusion of GCSF was carried out.

Main results and the role of chance

In the subcutaneous group (group-A) the mean endometrial thickness before GCSF injection was 5.8 ± 0.6 mm and, after injection it increased to 6.9 ± 0.4 mm. Similarly, in the intrauterine group (group-B) the mean endometrial thickness before GCSF was 5.9 ± 0.7 which increased to a mean of 7.9 ± 0.5 after GCSF instillation. The difference between endometrial thickness before and after intrauterine infusion of GCSF was more than that in the subcutaneous group. In group-A, 08 patients conceived out of 30 patients ( clinical pregnancy rate 26.6%) and in group B 11 conceived out of 30 patients in whom GCSF was instilled intrauterine (pregnancy rate 36.6%). Thus, there was a difference in the clinical pregnancy rate in the two groups, the intrauterine group yielding a higher clinical pregnancy rate, but it was not statistically significant. Because of the thin endometrium, we found an abortion rate of 25% (2/8) in the subcutaneous-GCSF group, and an abortion rate of 18% (2/11) in the intrauterine GCSF group.

Limitations, reasons for caution

There are few potential limitations because of the small sample size. Confounders such as obesity, smoking and alcohol intake, presence of adenomyosis and endometriosis, were not taken into consideration. Though prevalence of obesity is usually low in Indian women. Habits of smoking and alcohol are exceedingly uncommon in Indian women.

Wider implications of the findings: Use of GCSF plays an important role in management of patients of thin endometrium undergoing embryo transfer. It is an easily available and economical preparation in developing countries and the intrauterine instillation of GCSF can be easily practiced in an ART unit with good results in resistant thin endometrium patients.

Trial registration number

Not applicable

P–168 RCT comparing the effect of Continuous ( Single Step ) embryo culture system versus a Sequential embryo culture system on the outcome of IVF/ICSI cycles

Study question

Is the outcome of IVF/ICSI cycles done with continuous (single step ) embryo culture system different from that with sequential embryo culture system ?

Summary answer

Yes the outcome of IVF / ICSI cycles done with continuous (single step ) embryo-culture system is better than that with sequential embryo-culture system .

What is known already

Embryo culture media are important factors in IVF, which can significantly influence the clinical outcome of IVF/ICSI cycles. However it is not clear which formulation is most optimal and whether sequential or continuous media (single step) should be favored. Sequential media complies with embryo demands based on developmental stage , taking into account metabolic changes embryos undergo in-vivo, while moving from the oviduct to the uterus. The embryos in the early cleavage stage prefer to use pyruvate to produce energy, whereas once development nears the blastocyst stage , the embryos start using glucose in the process of glycolysis .

Study design, size, duration

A prospective RCT was carried out at our centre between 2018–2019 and IVF-ICSI patients meeting inclusion criteria (at least six normal MII - Oocytes) were included in this study. The aim of study was to compare blastocyst formation rates after embryo-culture in two different culture media systems. 436 metaphase II Oocytes from 62 women were randomly and equally divided to be fertilized and cultured to the blastocyst stage in either sequential media or single-step media.

Participants/materials, setting, methods

In this prospective trial with sibling oocytes, 436 metaphase II oocytes from 62 women were randomly and equally divided to be fertilized and cultured to the blastocyst stage in either sequential media ( n = 218 MII oocytes) or a single medium ( n = 218 MII oocytes). In both groups, embryos were cultured in an interrupted fashion with media changes on day 3. Embryo transfer was performed on day 5.

Main results and the role of chance

Blastocyst formation rates on day 5 were significantly higher following culture in single step media 60.55% (132 / 218 ) as compared to sequential media 34.86% ( 76 / 218) . The percentage of good quality blastocysts was also significantly higher in single step media. In conclusion, culture in single step media was associated with higher blastocyst formation rates compared to sequential media , suggesting that the single medium may provide better support to the developing embryo. The proportion of poor quality embryos was significantly higher in the sequential media group. Results indicate that embryo culture in continuous media could be as efficient as embryo culture in sequential media. A significant difference observed was the proportion of poor quality embryos on day 5 , which was significantly higher when the embryos were cultured in sequential media. Our results suggest that the type of embryo culture media can influence the quality of embryos both at the cleavage stage and blastocyst stage. The use of continuous embryo culture media does not seem to cause an adverse effect; in fact, their use can lower the workload in busy IVF labs and lower the stress that embryos are exposed to during handling.

Limitations, reasons for caution

Although single-step-medium for extended culture has practical advantages and blastocyst formation rates appear to be higher, there is insufficient evidence to recommend either sequential or single-step media as being superior for the embryo-culture to days 5/6. Further studies comparing these two media systems in well-designed trials should be performed.

Wider implications of the findings: When employing sequential media for embryo culture , it is necessary to transfer the embryos from one medium to another ( cleavage stage medium to blastocyst stage medium) which increases stress related embryo damage . Therefore, single-step media is beneficial as the embryos can develop undisturbed till blastocyst stage.

Trial registration number

Not applicable

P–169 Does increasing the time interval between Oocyte-Retrieval and Oocyte-Denudation improve the results in ICSI cycles ?

Study question

What should be the optimal time interval which elapses between oocyte retrieval and denudation followed by ICSI , for optimal results in ART cycles ?

Summary answer

Our study suggests that an optimum interval between oocyte retrieval and oocyte denudation followed by ICSI, leads to better results in ART cycles.

What is known already

It is widely accepted that the best timing for OPU is 34–39 hours after ovulation trigger. Some studies suggest that preincubation time before ICSI can be beneficial when it comes to fertilization and pregnancy rates while late ICSI (fertilization) may have negative results due to oocyte ageing. Other studies claim that there is no significant difference in ART results when ICSI is performed between 2–6 hours post Oocyte-Retrieval (OR) . Few studies state that 1–3 hours of COC-culture prior to denudation and oocyte injection is better as far as fertilization , embryo quality and improved oocyte cytoplasmic maturity is concerned.

Study design, size, duration

RCT of 234 ICSI cycles was carried out between 2017–2019. Patients were divided into two groups-: A- Early denudation with ICSI and B- Late denudation with ICSI.Both the groups were comparable in terms of female age, number of oocytes, day of transfer, number of embryos transferred and embryo quality. Fresh or frozen embryos were transferred , which were always derived from the same stimulation cycle. Exclusion criteria were : Severe male factor / TESA / PESA.

Participants/materials, setting, methods

234 ICSI cycles with similar ovarian stimulation protocols were analyzed as per time range between triggering, OPU, denudation and ICSI. Patients were divided into two groups: A- Early denudation (1–2 hours after OPU) with ICSI (1–2 hours after denudation) and B- Late denudation (4–6 hours after Oocyte-Retrieval ) with ICSI (1–2 hours after denudation).Primary outcomes were oocyte maturation and fertilization rates and secondary outcomes were clinical pregnancy rate and abortion rates.

Main results and the role of chance

In group B ( Late denudation and ICSI), the mean fertilization rate was 67% and the Clinical Pregnancy rate was 46%. This was better than the mean fertilization rate of 56% and clinical pregnancy rate of 39% observed in group A ( Early denudation and ICSI). However the difference was not statistically significant. Therefore, ideal maturation rates were observed when denudation ( followed by ICSI ) was delayed and done 4–6 hours after Oocyte-Retrieval. In ICSI cycles in ART , ovarian stimulation is used to induce the simultaneous growth of multiple follicles, followed by final maturation and ovulation triggering with exogenous hCG. or GnRH-Agonist or both. Generally, oocyte retrieval (OR) is performed 34 - 36h later. In addition, 2–4 hours in culture of the cumulus oocyte complexes (COC) prior to oocyte injection is believed beneficial for fertilization and embryo quality, probably due to improved oocyte cytoplasmic maturity. However, in large ART centers with high workloads, following such definite time intervals is frequently very difficult.

Limitations, reasons for caution

In large busy centers , maintaining meticulous time intervals is difficult . As our study numbers are small, larger multicentric trials are required in order to confirm our findings and to provide more robust data . This data cannot be applied to IVM, TESE / PESE and severe male-factor infertility.

Wider implications of the findings: To achieve a successful fertilization, both nuclear and cytoplasmic maturity are required. Our Study indicates that a slight delay in denudation following Oocyte-Retrieval , will yield a higher number of good quality oocytes. A higher success rate can also be expected due to more number of embryos available for transfer.

Trial registration number

Not applicable

O-230 RCT comparing Recombinant-hcg trigger with Dual-trigger (GnRH-agonist and recombinant-hcg ) in improving clinical outcome in ICSI cycles in women with Diminished Ovarian Reserve

Study question

Does use of Dual-trigger (GnRH-agonist with recombinant-hcg) improve the clinical outcome in women with diminished ovarian reserve as compared to Recombinant-hcg trigger?

Summary answer

Yes, the use of Dual-trigger (GnRH-agonist with recombinant-hcg) improve the clinical outcome in women with diminished ovarian reserve as compared to Recombinant-hcg trigger.

What is known already

The population of poor responders has grown exponentially over the years and their management of ovarian stimulation remains one of the most challenging aspects. In GnRH antagonist down-regulated IVF-ICSI cycles, dual triggering for the final oocyte maturation with GnRH-a and a reduced dose of hCG improves the rate of fertilization and clinical pregnancy in women with diminished ovarian reserve. Further more, the benefit of lowered cycle cancellation rate would also enable greater percentage of patients with diminished ovarian reserve to reach the final stage of their ART treatment, thereby enhancing their chances of achieving a successful pregnancy .

Study design, size, duration

This RCT included GnRH antagonist ICSI cycles from 2018-2019. 82 women with diminished ovarian reserve (AMH ≤ 1.1 ng/ml and AFC ≤5) were included. The primary outcome measured was the oocyte fertilization rate, implantation rate and clinical pregnancy rate per oocyte retrieval cycle. Secondary outcome measured was embryo transfer cancellation rate and abortion rate per oocyte retrieval cycle.

Participants/materials, setting, methods

82 women with diminished ovarian reserve undergoing fresh embryo transfer were included and randomly divided in two groups - Group-A (hCG trigger/control group: n = 41); and Group-B (dual trigger/study group: n = 41). Both patient groups underwent controlled ovarian stimulation using antagonist. The final oocyte maturation was triggered either by recombinant hCG (Group-A) or by a combination of recombinant hCG and GnRH-agonist (Dual trigger) (Group-B).

Main results and the role of chance

The dual-trigger group had significantly higher fertilization rate (62.8 vs. 37.6%), higher clinical pregnancy rate (31.4% vs. 18.1%) as compared to the recombinant-hCG trigger group. In addition, the abortion rate(12.1% vs. 21.3%) and embryo transfer cancellation rate (8.3% vs. 16.1%) were both significantly lower in the dual trigger group. The baseline characteristics for the control and the study group were similar and there was no significant difference in the patient age, serum AMH level, and cause of infertility. The total r-FSH dose, duration of stimulation, endometrial thickness, and serum hormone profile on the day of trigger were also similar between the control and the study group. The main advantage of triggering with GnRH-a is that it induces a mid-cycle FSH surge which resembles the natural ovulatory cycle hormonal changes. Study shows that in GnRH antagonist ART cycles, dual triggering with GnRH-a and hCG could significantly improve the rate of fertilization and clinical pregnancy in diminished ovarian reserve women. Furthermore, the benefit of lowered cycle cancellation rate would also enable greater percentage of patients with diminished ovarian reserve to reach the final stage of their ART treatment thereby enhancing their chance of achieving a successful pregnancy as well as reducing their mental stress.

Limitations, reasons for caution

The main limitation of our study is the low patient number. Triggering with GnRH-a has become a significant part of contemporary ART practice, especially in high responders, oocytes donors and oncology patients. However, more RCTs are required in order to justify the use of GnRH-agonists in poor responders in ART cycles.

Wider implications of the findings

Results of our study concurred with other studies of dual triggering, calls for a possible paradigm shift in ovulation-triggering agent for GnRH-antagonist cycles. Diminished ovarian reserve patients are constituting a large part of clinical ART practice and for such patients, obtaining maximum mature oocytes and good embryos is vitally important.

Trial registration number

not applicable