Multi-tissue proteogenomic analysis for mechanistic toxicology studies in non-model species

New approach methodologies (NAM), including omics and in vitro approaches, are contributing to the implementation of 3R (reduction, refinement and replacement) strategies in regulatory science and risk assessment. In this study, we present an integrative transcriptomics and proteomics analysis workflow for the validation and revision of complex fish genomes and demonstrate how proteogenomics expression matrices can be used to support multi-level omics data integration in non-model species in vivo and in vitro. Using Atlantic salmon as an example, we constructed proteogenomic databases from publicly available transcriptomic data and in-house generated RNA-Seq and LC-MS/MS data. Our analysis identified ∼80,000 peptides, providing direct evidence of translation for over 40,000 RefSeq structures. The data also highlighted 183 co-located peptide groups that supported a single transcript each, and in each case, either corrected a previous annotation, supported Ensembl annotations not present in RefSeq, or identified novel previously unannotated genes. Proteogenomics data-derived expression matrices revealed distinct profiles for the different tissue types analyzed. Focusing on proteins involved in defense against xenobiotics, we detected distinct expression patterns across different salmon tissues and observed homology in the expression of chemical defense proteins between in vivo and in vitro liver systems. Our study demonstrates the potential of proteogenomic analyses in extending our understanding of complex fish genomes and provides an advanced bioinformatic toolkit to support the further development of NAMs and their application in regulatory science and (eco)toxicological studies of non-model species.

Asia Pacific TAVI registry (an APSIC initiative): initial report of early outcomes: Asia Pacific TAVI registry

AIMS

The aim of the study was to report the clinical experience, 30-day mortality and acute outcomes of patients undergoing transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) in the Asia Pacific region.

METHODS AND RESULTS

The Asia Pacific TAVI registry is an international, multicentre, prospective, observational registry managed under the auspices of the Asian Pacific Society of Interventional Cardiology (APSIC). Patients undergoing TAVI in seven centres from Hong Kong, Japan, Philippines, Singapore and Taiwan, treated with TAVI devices for severe symptomatic aortic stenosis, were assessed. This first review presents the acute results and 30-day mortality. A multivariable analysis was also performed to identify independent predictors of early all-cause mortality. The enrolment was from 2009 to 2017 and a total of 1,125 patients were recruited. The 30-day mortality rate was 2.5%. Baseline logistic EuroSCORE more than 16 was independently associated with a 2.8-times increased risk of 30-day all-cause mortality (p=0.016). Post-procedural stroke (HR 4.9, p=0.008) was also associated with increased mortality.

CONCLUSIONS

This initial report of the Asia Pacific TAVI registry demonstrated good acute success and low 30-day mortality. The preprocedural logistic EuroSCORE and post-procedural stroke incidence were strongly associated with acute mortality. Further attempts to reduce post-procedural stroke should be explored.

Evaluation of the pylorus with concurrent intraluminal pressure and EndoFLIP in patients with nausea and vomiting

BACKGROUND

Nausea and vomiting occurs in gastroparesis due to diabetes mellitus or unknown causes. The aim of this study was to compare (i) pyloric distensibility to pyloric manometric pressure in patients with nausea and vomiting and (ii) to correlate distensibility with delays in gastric emptying.

METHODS

Sleeve manometry and EndoFLIP were performed sequentially during the same endoscopy on 114 patients with nausea and vomiting (47 with diabetes mellitus and 67 with idiopathic cause) after a standardized gastric emptying study. The sleeve manometer was positioned fluoroscopically, and the EndoFLIP was placed endoscopically. Manometric pressure using a water-perfused catheter and distensibility using an EndoFLIP filled with 40 cc of saline were measured from the pylorus.

KEY RESULTS

The basal pyloric pressure was elevated (>10 mmHg) in 34 patients and was normal in 80 patients. The basal and peak pressures were similar in patient with normal and delayed gastric emptying (p > 0.05). There was a significant decrease in distensibility (8.0 ± 1.0 mm(2) /mmHg) in patients with gastric retention (>20% at 4 h) compared with patients (12.4 ± 1.4 mm(2) /mmHg) (p < 0.01) with normal gastric retention (<10%). Pressure measurements from the sleeve manometer and the EndoFLIP correlated (r = 0.29) (p < 0.002), and increased EndoFLIP balloon pressure (19.4 ± 1.4 mmHg) (p < 0.01) was associated with a severe delay in gastric emptying.

CONCLUSIONS & INFERENCES

Elevated basal pyloric pressure occurs in 42% of patients with nausea and vomiting and delayed emptying. Decreased pyloric distensibility occurs with nausea, vomiting, and delayed gastric emptying. The EndoFLIP is a useful tool in the evaluation of pyloric function in symptomatic patients.

Combined ventriculoperitoneal shunt blockage, viscus perforation and migration into urethra, presenting with repeated urinary tract infection

We present an extremely rare case of delayed and combined ventriculoperitoneal shunt blockage, viscus perforation and migration into the urethra manifested by a repeated urinary tract infection. This was discovered six months after the shunt was inserted. Although there were various other transient symptoms, the patient did not show obvious peritoneal signs. This complication could have been lethal if the discovery had been delayed. One of the best ways of preventing such migration is possibly the use of a softer catheter. However, making sure of appropriate redundancy for the abdominal part of the catheter may be of equal importance.

Hypofractionated CyberKnife stereotactic radiosurgery for acoustic neuromas with and without association to neurofibromatosis Type 2

CyberKnife stereotactic radiosurgery (CKSRS) has been proved effective in treating intra-cranial lesions. To treat acoustic neuroma (AN) patients with or without neurofibromatosis Type 2 (NF2) associations, the functional preservation of hearing, trigeminal nerve, and facial nerve are important. Twenty-one patients were treated with hypofractionated CKSRS. Fourteen non-NF2 and seven NF2 patients were enrolled. Cranial nerve function, audiograms, and magnetic resonance images (MRI) were monitored. Mean follow-up was 15 month. Tumors with volumes ranging from 0.13 to 24.8 cm3 (mean 5.4 cm3) were irradiated with the marginal dose 1800-2000 cGy/3 fractions. Tumors were treated with an 80 to 89% isodose line (mean 83%) and mean 97.9% tumor coverage. Two patients experienced hearing deterioration (16.7%) in the non-NF2 group, and 3 patients (50%) in the NF2 group. No facial or trigeminal dysfunction, brain stem toxicity, or cerebellar edema occurred. Tumor regression was seen in 9 patients (43%) and stable in 12 patients (57%). 100% tumor control rate was achieved. Hypofractionated CKSRS was not only effective in tumor control but also excellent in hearing preservation for non-NF2 AN. But for NF2 patients, although the tumor control was remarkable, hearing preservation was modest as in non-NF2 patients.

Vascular effects on ciliary tissue from endoscopic versus trans-scleral cyclophotocoagulation

AIM

To determine the acute and chronic vascular effects of endoscopic cyclophotocoagulation (ECP) versus trans-scleral cyclophotocoagulation (TCP) in a rabbit model.

METHODS

20 rabbits underwent ECP in one eye and another 20 rabbits had unilateral TCP. Five treated eyes from each group underwent endoscopic fluorescein angiography (EFA) of the treated ciliary processes at each of the following time points: immediate, 1 day, 1 week, and 1 month. Five untreated rabbits were used as controls. The NIH Image software program was used to trace ciliary processes in order to determine their mean intensity, as a measure of their perfusion. Histopathology was also performed on eyes from each time point.

RESULTS

Immediately and 1 day after laser, both TCP and ECP eyes demonstrated severely reduced or non-existent blood flow in the areas of treatment. TCP treated processes essentially remained non-perfused at the 1 week and 1 month time points. ECP treated processes showed some reperfusion at 1 week and greater reperfusion by 1 month. Histopathology confirmed the overall greater vascular occlusion seen with TCP.

CONCLUSIONS

Chronic poor perfusion of the ciliary body after TCP may account, in part, for its efficacy, as well as the significant complications including hypotony and phthisis. Late reperfusion of this region after ECP may provide some insight into the differences in efficacy and complication rates compared to TCP.

Idiopathic syringomyelia: case report and review of the literature

Syringomyelia is an uncommon disease that is caused most often by type I Chiari malformation, which develops in the hindbrain, and less frequently by other factors which are not limited to the hindbrain, including trauma, infection, or scoliosis. Idiopathic syringomyelia is rare. We present in this article a patient with idiopathic syringomyelia characterized by hypoesthesia and progressive weakness in the left lower limb. Decompression was attempted by means of laminectomy and a syringoarachnoid shunt. Motor, sensory, and bladder functions were monitored by the change in Japanese Orthopedic Association scores, which increased from 10 points preoperatively to 14 points 30 days postoperatively. This case demonstrates the effectiveness of surgical decompression in a patient with remarkable neurological deficit.

Effect of anti-hypertensive drug dose frequency on the clinic-home blood pressure difference in patients with stage 1 treated hypertension

Clinic blood pressure (CBP) is generally used for diagnosis and treatment monitoring in hypertension, but target organ damage correlates more closely with home blood pressure (HBP). Eliminating the clinic-home blood pressure difference (CHBPD) would make conventional CBP a more accurate alternative to HBP. This prospective, randomized, open trial compared the effect of a once-daily versus a twice-daily regimen of anti-hypertensive therapy on CHBPD. After a 2-week wash-out period, 85 confirmed stage 1 hypertensive patients were randomized to receive 2 mg trichlormethiazide daily in one (40 subjects) or two (45 subjects) daily doses for 3 weeks. CBP and HBP measurements were taken during the third week of treatment and the CHBPD calculated. After treatment, the systolic and diastolic CHBPD values were significantly greater in the once-daily regimen than in the twice-daily regimen. Conventional CBP should not be used as an alternative to HBP for evaluating prognosis and monitoring anti-hypertensive therapy when using a once-daily regimen.

The role of subclass switching in the pathogenesis of endemic pemphigus foliaceus

Endemic pemphigus foliaceus, like the sporadic form seen in the developed world, is mediated by IgG antibodies to desmoglein-1. We studied an endemic focus in Limao Verde, Brazil, where disease prevalence is 3.4%. We previously detected IgG antibodies to desmoglein-1 in 97% of patients, but also in 55% of normal subjects in the endemic focus, with progressively lower levels in normal subjects in surrounding areas. An environmental trigger is hypothesized to explain these and other findings. In this study we sought to determine if patients and enzyme-linked-immunosorbent-assay-positive normal subjects in Limao Verde differ in IgG subclass response to desmoglein-1. We developed a sensitive and specific subclass enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay using recombinant desmoglein-1 and standardized the assay to enable comparability between the four subclasses. We found that normal subjects have an IgG1 and IgG4 response, whereas patients have similar levels of IgG1 but a mean 19.3-fold higher IgG4 response. Patients in remission have a weak IgG4 response, and a 74.3-fold higher IgG4 response is associated with active disease. Finally, in five patients in whom we had blood samples from both before and after the onset of clinical disease, a mean 103.08-fold rise in IgG4 was associated with onset of clinical disease, but only a mean 3.45-fold rise in IgG1. These results suggest that the early antibody response in normal subjects living in the endemic area and in patients before the onset of clinical disease is mainly IgG1. Acquisition of an IgG4 response is a key step in the development of clinical disease.

Novel mutations of CYP3A4 in Chinese

Human cytochrome P450 3A4 is a major P450 enzyme in the liver and gastrointestinal tract. It plays important roles in the metabolism of a wide variety of drugs, some endogenous steroids, and harmful environmental contaminants. CYP3A4 exhibits a remarkable interindividual activity variation as high as 20-fold. To investigate whether the interindividual variation in CYP3A4 levels can be partly explained by genetic polymorphism, we analyzed DNA samples from 102 Chinese subjects by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-single-strand conformation polymorphism analysis for novel point mutation in the CYP3A4 coding sequence and promoter region. Using PCR and directed sequencing method to establish the complete intron sequence of CYP3A4 from leukocytes, the complete genomic sequence from exon 1 through 13 of CYP3A4 was determined and published in the GenBank database (accession no. AF209389). CYP3A4-specific primers were designed accordingly. After PCR-single-strand conformation polymorphism and restriction fragment length polymorphism screening, we found three novel mutations; two are point mutations and one is insertion. The first variant allele (CYP3A4*4), an Ile118Val change, was found in 3 of 102 Chinese subjects. The next allele (CYP3A4*5), which causes a Pro218Arg amino acid change, was found in 2 of 102 subjects. We found an insertion in A(17776), designated as CYP3A4*6, which causes frame shift and an early stop codon in exon 9, in one heterozygous subject. We also investigated the CYP3A4 activity in these mutant subjects by measuring the morning spot urinary 6beta-hydroxycortisol to free cortisol ratio with the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay method. When compared with healthy Chinese population data, the 6beta-hydroxycortisol to free cortisol ratio data suggested that these alleles (CYP3A4*4, CYP3A4*5, and CYP3A4*6) may decrease the CYP3A4 activity. Incidences of these mutations in Chinese subjects are rare. The prevalence of these point mutations in other ethnic groups and its effect on the metabolic activity of CYP3A4 remain to be further evaluated.

Epitopes targeted by bullous pemphigoid T lymphocytes and autoantibodies map to the same sites on the bullous pemphigoid 180 ectodomain

Bullous pemphigoid is a blistering skin disease characterized by autoantibodies directed against the NC16A domain of bullous pemphigoid 180 (collagen XVII), a transmembrane protein of epidermal basal cells. Passive transfer studies in mice have shown that antibodies that bind to this immunodominant region of bullous pemphigoid 180 are capable of inducing a skin disease that closely mimics bullous pemphigoid, supporting the hypothesis that epitopes within NC16A are involved in the pathogenesis of bullous pemphigoid. In this study, we examined the autoimmune T cell response in bullous pemphigoid patients. T cells from eight of 12 bullous pemphigoid patients, all of whom had circulating anti-bullous pemphigoid 180 autoantibodies, showed a specific proliferative response to recombinant forms of NC16A. T cell lines and clones developed from four of these patients recognize the same NC16A peptides as those targeted by autoantibodies from the corresponding individuals. These NC16A-responding T lymphocytes express alpha/beta T cell receptors and CD4 memory T cell surface markers and exhibited a Th1/Th2 mixed cytokine profile that may support the production of antibodies. This new information will aid in defining the key steps involved in the development of the autoimmune response in bullous pemphigoid.

The prevalence of antibodies against desmoglein 1 in endemic pemphigus foliaceus in Brazil. Cooperative Group on Fogo Selvagem Research

BACKGROUND

Pemphigus foliaceus is an autoimmune skin disease mediated by autoantibodies against desmoglein 1. The endemic form is thought to have an environmental cause. The Terena reservation of Limão Verde in Mato Grosso do Sul, Brazil, is a recently identified focus of the disease, with a prevalence of 3.4 percent in the population. We tested the hypothesis that normal subjects living in an endemic area have antibodies against desmoglein 1.

METHODS

We used an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay to detect antibodies against desmoglein 1 in serum samples from 60 patients with endemic pemphigus foliaceus (fogo selvagem) who lived in Limão Verde or elsewhere in Brazil, 372 normal subjects (without pemphigus foliaceus) from Limão Verde and surrounding locations, and 126 normal subjects from the United States and Japan.

RESULTS

Antibodies against desmoglein 1 were detected in 59 of the 60 patients with fogo selvagem (98 percent) but in only 3 of the 126 normal subjects from the United States and Japan (2 percent). Antibodies were also detected in 51 of the 93 normal subjects from Limão Verde (55 percent) and in 54 of the 279 normal subjects from surrounding areas (19 percent). Serum samples obtained one to four years before the onset of disease were available for five patients; all five had antibodies in the initial serum samples, and the onset of disease was associated with a marked increase in antibody values.

CONCLUSIONS

The prevalence of antibodies against desmoglein 1 is high among normal subjects living in an area among where fogo selvagem is endemic, and the onset of the disease is preceded by a sustained antibody response. These findings support the concept that the production of antibodies against desmoglein 1 is initiated by exposure to an unknown environmental agent.

Desmoglein-1-specific T lymphocytes from patients with endemic pemphigus foliaceus (fogo selvagem)

Fogo selvagem (FS), the endemic form of pemphigus foliaceus, is a cutaneous autoimmune disease characterized by subcorneal blistering of the epidermis and the production of autoantibodies against the desmosomal antigen desmoglein-1 (Dsg1). Previously, we showed that mice injected with autoantibodies from FS patients develop a skin disease that reproduces the clinical, histological, and immunological features of FS, indicating that autoantibodies play an essential role in the development of this disease. The purpose of this study was to characterize the autoimmune T-cell response associated with FS. We provide here the first evidence, to our knowledge, that the great majority of FS patients have circulating T lymphocytes that specifically proliferate in response to the extracellular domain of Dsg1. Long-term T cells developed from these patients also responded to Dsg1, and this antigen-specific response was shown to be restricted to HLA-DR molecules. These Dsg1-reactive FS T cells exhibited a CD4-positive memory T-cell phenotype and produced a T helper 2-like cytokine profile. These findings represent the initial steps in defining the role of T cells in FS autoimmunity.

Molecular mapping of the major epitopes of BP180 recognized by herpes gestationis autoantibodies

Herpes gestationis (HG) is an autoantibody-mediated subepidermal bullous dermatosis associated with pregnancy. The primary target of HG autoantibodies is BP180, a 180-kDa hemidesmosomal glycoprotein. We previously showed that autoantibodies and autoimmune T lymphocytes from HG patients recognize the MCW-1 antigenic site (AA 507-520), which is located in the membrane-proximal noncollagenous domain (NC16A) of BP180. Here, we analyzed the sera of 37 HG patients to further define the sites on BP180 that are targeted by autoantibodies. All of the HG sera, but none of the control sera, were immunoreactive with sec180e, a 120-kDa recombinant protein encompassing the entire BP180 extracellular domain. HG sera depleted of reactivity to NC16A no longer reacted with sec180e, indicating that the major HG-associated epitopes on BP180 are restricted to the NC16A domain. The vast majority of the HG sera (34 of 37) reacted with a 7 amino acid peptide corresponding to the N-terminal half of MCW-1 (MCW-1A). Eleven HG sera (including the 3 that failed to react with MCW-1A) recognized one or more of three antigenic sites located within a 15 amino acid stretch immediately downstream of MCW-1A. In summary, we have identified four major HG-associated epitopes clustered within a 22 amino acid region of the BP180 ectodomain. These findings support the hypothesis that an autoimmune response to the BP180 NC16A domain is a crucial step in the pathogenesis of HG.

Reduction in lipopolysaccharide-induced thrombocytopenia by triflavin in a rat model of septicemia

BACKGROUND

Thrombocytopenia frequently occurs early in the course of Gram-negative bacterial infections. Triflavin, an Arg-Gly-Asp-containing disintegrin, has been suggested to interfere with the interaction of fibrinogen with the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex. The present study was undertaken to determine whether triflavin could prevent thrombocytopenia in lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-treated rats.

METHODS AND RESULTS

In this study, 51Cr-labeled platelets were used to assess blood and tissue platelet accumulation after LPS challenge. The administration of LPS (4 mg/kg IV bolus) for 4 hours induced a reduction in radiolabeled platelets in blood and an obvious accumulation of platelets in liver. Triflavin (500 microg/kg) but not GRGDS (20 mg/kg) significantly prevented the alteration of radiolabeled platelet distribution in blood and liver when induced by LPS. Furthermore, triflavin but not GRGDS markedly suppressed the elevation in plasma thromboxane B2 concentration within the 4-hour period of LPS administration. In LPS-treated rats, the 5-hydroxytryptamine level was lower in the blood and higher in the liver compared with levels in normal saline-treated rats. Pretreatment with triflavin (500 microg/kg) significantly reversed the 5-hydroxytryptamine concentration in blood and liver of LPS-treated rats. In histological examinations and platelet adhesion assay, triflavin markedly inhibited the adhesion of platelets to subendothelial matrixes in vivo and in vitro.

CONCLUSIONS

The results indicate that triflavin effectively prevents thrombocytopenia, possibly through the following 2 mechanisms: (1) Triflavin markedly inhibits platelet aggregation, resulting in decreased thromboxane A2 formation. (2) It inhibits the adhesion of platelets to subendothelial matrixes, thereby leading to a reversal in the distribution of platelets in blood and liver in LPS-treated rats.

Identification and characterization of epitopes recognized by T lymphocytes and autoantibodies from patients with herpes gestationis

Autoantibodies associated with herpes gestationis (HG), a pregnancy-associated autoimmune skin disease, target the hemidesmosomal protein BP180. It was shown that the major noncollagenous stretch of the BP180 ectodomain (NC16A) harbors epitopes recognized by HG sera. Furthermore, Abs reactive with the homologous domain of murine BP180 are known to trigger a cutaneous blistering disease in mice by passive transfer experiments. The present study was aimed at characterizing the T cell responses and specificities of autoantibodies from two HG patients. Using immunoblotting and T cell proliferation assays, we have identified a 14-amino-acid stretch of the BP180 ectodomain (MCW-1; aa 507-520) that is recognized by both T cells and autoantibodies produced by the HG patients. The neonate born to one of these HG patients showed no signs of skin disease and had no detectable T cell response to the BP180 Ag, but did have a low titer of circulating anti-BP180 autoantibodies, presumably of maternal origin. BP180-specific T cell lines and clones developed from an HG patient specifically reacted with the MCW-1 epitope. The proliferative responses of these clones were restricted to HLA-DR, but not -DQ or -DP. These Ag-specific T cells expressed alpha/beta TCRs and a CD4 memory T cell phenotype and secreted IFN-gamma and IL-2, but not IL-4 or IL-6, suggesting that they are Th1-type lymphocytes. Further characterization of these Ag-specific T cells and autoantibodies will aid in elucidating the autoimmune mechanism(s) leading to the development of HG.

Mixed-valence compound-based biosensor

A cobalt(II)hexacyanoferrate-based biosensor has been prepared simply by codeposition of an enzyme, together with the electrochemical formation of a cobalt (II)hexacyanoferrate compound electrochemically. The compound can be generated at a constant potential of -0.05 V (vs. Ag/AgCl). This compound possesses the catalytic property of reducing hydrogen peroxide to water at the operating potential of 0.0 V vs. Ag/AgCl. The mixed-valence compound-based biosensor possesses an unique interference-independent feature, which is important for biomedical application; this feature is attributed to the low overvoltage characteristic of cobalt (II)hexacyanoferrate. The electrochemical glucose biosensor responds to a series of glucose injections with linearity up to 5 mM (with correlation coefficient R = 0.9999) and the sensitivity of the linear portion is 733 nA/(cm2 x mM). The detection limit is 2 x 10(-6)M (S/N = 3). Both the potential-dependent electron transfer rate constant and the apparent Michaelis-Menten constant were studied in rotating disk experiments. The apparent Michaelis-Menten constant, Km' calculated from the slope of the "Lineweaver-Burke" type reciprocal plot is 28 mM. A fast-response characteristic is observed in the rotating disk experiment and the 95% response time is 14.5 sec. No response was observed from the addition of either 2 x 10(-4)M galactose, acetaminophen, ascorbic acid, uric acid, cysteine, tyrosine, dopamine, or 1,4-dihydroxyquinone in the absence and/or in the presence of 5 x 10(-4)M glucose.

Evaluation of buffering capacity and acid neutralizing-pH time profile of antacids

The antacid properties of seven antacids listed in the hospital formulary of a medical center were evaluated with in vitro tests. These included not only the preliminary antacid test and acid-neutralizing capacity test as described in the United States Pharmacopeia (USP XXIII), but also a buffering pH profile test. The preliminary antacid test measured the final pH of a 10-mL solution of 0.5 N HCl 10 minutes after addition of the minimum recommended dose of an antacid, while the neutralizing capacity test measured the amount (mEq) of HCl neutralized by the minimum recommended dose in 15 minutes. The buffering pH profile recorded the pH time course of dynamic simulated gastric fluid neutralization by a dose of an antacid. In the preliminary antacid test, magnesium oxide showed the highest pH (9.52 +/- 0.14, mean +/- standard deviation, n = 3); aluminum phosphate gel yielded a final pH of 2.51 +/- 0.01, thus failing to meet the criteria of an antacid (pH > 3.5). In the acid-neutralizing capacity test, hydrotalcite had the highest neutralizing capacity (28.26 +/- 0.3 mEq), while sodium bicarbonate had the lowest (7.40 +/- 0.12 mEq). In the buffering pH profile test, aluminum-magnesium hydroxide suspensions and hydrotalcite tablets maintained a steady optimum pH (3-5) for around 1.5 hours. One tablet of calcium carbonate, sodium bicarbonate or magnesium oxide could not raise the gastric pH to above 3, but two tablets increased the pH excessively (5.3 to 8.6). The higher dose (two tablets) of aluminum hydroxide hexitol complex could not raise the pH to the optimal level. These findings demonstrate that there is disparity in the antacid effectiveness estimated by the neutralizing capacity test and the buffering pH profile test and suggest that the efficacy of an antacid cannot be accurately predicted from its acid-neutralizing capacity. The dose of antacids greatly influences the neutralizing pH profiles. Aluminum-magnesium compounds appear to provide steadier buffering than carbonate compounds or magnesium oxide.

Direct duplication of 9p22-->p24 in a child with duplication 9p syndrome

A de novo direct duplication of 9p22-->p24 was shown in a child with a duplication 9p phenotype by GTG banding and fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) using a chromosome-9 specific painting probe as well as 6 YAC DNA probes localized to the 9p13-9p23 region. The breakpoints in this patient and previously reported patients suggest that 9p22 may be the critical region for duplication 9p syndrome.

T lymphocytes from a subset of patients with pemphigus vulgaris respond to both desmoglein-3 and desmoglein-1

Pemphigus vulgaris and pemphigus foliaceus are cutaneous autoimmune diseases characterized by intraepithelial blisters and autoantibodies to desmosomal glycoproteins. The antigens recognized by pemphigus vulgaris and pemphigus foliaceus autoantibodies are desmoglein-3 (Dsg3) and desmoglein-1 (Dsg1), respectively. Dsg3 and Dsg1 are members of the desmoglein subfamily of the cadherin supergene family of cell adhesion molecules. It has been well documented that a subset of pemphigus vulgaris sera have IgG reactivity to both Dsg1 and Dsg3, suggesting that Dsg1 may also participate in the autoimmune response of these patients. The cellular mechanisms of T cell autoimmunity in these patients, however, are completely unknown. In this study, we tested the proliferative responses of T lymphocytes from eight pemphigus vulgaris patients after incubation with Dsg3 and Dsg1 fusion proteins. The sera of four of these PV patients showed reactivity with both Dsg1 and Dsg3, whereas the remaining four reacted only with Dsg3. We found that T cells obtained from those patients that exhibited the combined Dsg1/Dsg3 autoantibody reactivity showed a proliferative response after exposure to either Dsg1 or Dsg3 fusion proteins. The cellular responses to both of these recombinant proteins were highly specific and restricted to the CD4-positive T cell population. T cells from pemphigus vulgaris patients with no anti-Dsg1 serum reactivity showed a proliferative response to Dsg3, but not to Dsg1. The Dsg1 fusion protein used in this study has minimal sequence homology with Dsg3. Thus, this study provides the first evidence that T cells from a subset of pemphigus vulgaris patients respond to both Dsg1 and Dsg3.

Heparin-binding epidermal growth factor-like growth factor and transforming growth factor-alpha in human non-small cell lung cancers

Transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-alpha), a member of the epidermal growth factor (EGF) family that binds to the EGF receptor (EGFR), is thought to function in an autocrine manner in non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLC). Heparin-binding EGF-like growth factor (HB-EGF), a novel member of the EGF family, also binds to EGFR. To compare the expression of HB-EGF, TGF-alpha and EGFR genes in NSCLC and normal lung tissue, we measured the levels of messenger RNA (mRNA) for these genes in human NSCLC and normal lung tissues by Northern hybridization, reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), and in situ hybridization. A total of eight specimens (paired tumor tissue and normal lung tissue) were harvested from four patients who underwent resection of primary resectable NSCLC. HB-EGF was not expressed in either tumor tissue or normal lung tissue, while EGFR and TGF-alpha were expressed in all samples. TGF-alpha was overexpressed in all tumor tissue samples by several hundred-fold, while the expression of EGFR was not significantly different in tumor tissue and normal lung tissue. There was no correlation between the expression of TGF-alpha and EGFR. In situ hybridization showed that TGF-alpha mRNA was localized mainly in the cancer cells of tumor tissues and in the macrophages of alveoli in normal lung tissue. Our results showed that HB-EGF plays no role in the growth of NSCLC, and that there was no significant overexpression of EGFR in tumor tissue. TGF-alpha may play a major role in the growth of NSCLC. This supports a new direction in rational NSCLC treatment.

Medication use characteristics in an ambulatory elderly population in Taiwan

OBJECTIVE

To compare prescribing patterns between the elderly and nonelderly in 1994, to disclose prescribing trends in the elderly-between 1992 and 1994, to explore whether drug utilization is in agreement with disease prevalence, and to identify suboptimal prescribing by drug category for ambulatory elderly patients.

DESIGN

Cross-sectional survey at two separate time intervals.

SETTING

All public group practice centers (GPCs) in Taiwan.

PATIENTS

Ambulatory adults who visited GPCs during 1 random week. Those 65 years or over were classified as the elderly group, and those 20-64 years were the nonelderly group.

MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES

Mean diagnosis, drug use, and expenditure; frequency of diagnosis; and prescribing by therapeutic category.

RESULTS

Data on 30777 elderly and 38184 nonelderly patients were collected in 1994. There was widespread use of antacids. Compared with nonelderly adults, the elderly were diagnosed with more diseases (1.3 vs. 1.2, respectively; p < 0.01), received more medications (4.7 vs. 4.1, respectively; p < 0.01), and had higher drug expenditures (5.4 vs. 4.6, respectively; p < 0.01). Chronic illness was more prevalent in the elderly, which accounted for the extensive use of cardiovascular drugs (32.1%), nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (25.9%), and anxiolytics (15.9%). The upward trend in the elderly from 1992 to 1994 with hypertension (18.6% vs. 20.0%) or diabetes (9.2% vs. 10.9%) did not result in more cases of cerebrovascular disease (7.1% vs. 4.9%). There was a substantial increase in use of antispasmodic and gastroprokinetic agents (4.5% to 10.7%); the use of antacids decreased (73.6% to 63.4%) in the elderly.

CONCLUSIONS

Compared with the prevalence of disease, there was extensive nonspecific use of anxiolytics and antacids. However, lessened use of antidepressants and postmenopausal hormone replacement may have an impact on morbidity and mortality and deserves particular attention.

Comparison of cytokeratin fragment 19 (CYFRA 21-1), tissue polypeptide antigen (TPA) and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) as tumour markers in bronchogenic carcinoma

To elevate the diagnostic value of the serum cytokeratin 19 fragment (CYFRA 21-1) and compare it with carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and tissue polypeptide antigen (TPA) in bronchogenic carcinoma, the sera of 161 patients (58 with benign pulmonary disease and 103 with bronchogenic carcinoma) was investigated using immunoradiometric assay. Sensitivities for CYFRA 21-1, CEA and TPA (using 3.5 ng ml-1, 5.0 ng ml-1, 110 U l-1, respectively, cut-off values corresponding to a 95% specificity for benign pulmonary disease) in bronchogenic carcinoma were 64, 47 and 61%, respectively. Positive CYFRA 21-1 levels were identified in 75% of patients with squamous cell carcinoma (n = 36), in 67% with adenocarcinoma (n = 45), in 17% with large cell carcinoma (n = 6), and in 50% with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) (n = 16). However, CYFRA 21-1 levels were not significantly different between squamous cell carcinoma and the other histological types. The sensitivity of the combined measurement of CYFRA 21-1 with any other tumour marker was significantly higher than that of CYFRA 21-1 measurement alone. Elevated CYFRA 21-1 levels were observed in 44% of Stages I and II (n = 18) and 72% of Stage III and IV (n = 69) patients with non-small cell lung cancer (P < 0.05). A significant inter-marker correlation was observed between CYFRA 21-1 and TPA (n = 103, r = 0.448, P < 0.0001). Twenty-one patients were monitored by CYFRA 21-1, and significantly different changes in progressive patients (P = 0.0058) and regressive patients (P = 0.016) were obtained. These results indicate that CYFRA 21-1 may be not only a sensitive tumour marker in the diagnosis of bronchogenic carcinoma, but also a useful marker for the monitoring of bronchogenic carcinoma.

Profile of children requiring emergency treatment for asthma

BACKGROUND

Emergency department care for asthma is expensive and continuity of care is often inefficient. Identification of patients-at-risk for emergency treatment is required in order to intervene before visits to the emergency department.

OBJECTIVE

To identify the antecedent factors in patients requiring emergency department treatment for wheezing and to determine the level of care before emergency visits.

METHODS

A prospective survey of patients treated for wheezing in the emergency department of an academic children's hospital from January 1, 1994 to December 31, 1994. Data were compiled from a data from completed from the information obtained from the medical record, phone calls and letters.

RESULTS

During 1994, 1474 patients were treated for asthma and accounted for 1870 visits to the emergency department. Thirty-six percent of the total number of visits were made by 16% of the patients who made repeat visits. Two-thirds of the patients were 5 years of younger. Over 190 patients had been hospitalized for wheezing during the preceding 12-month period. Forty-four percent of the patients were referred to the emergency department by primary care physicians and 6.7% were referred by asthma specialists, either allergists or pulmonologists. The major predisposing factor was a family history of asthma in 70%. Beta agonists were the medications most frequently used prior to the emergency visits. Inhaled corticosteroids were used daily by 16% of the patients and oral corticosteroids were used daily by 7% of the patients.

CONCLUSION

Thirty-six percent of the visits were due to 16% of patients who were seen repeatedly in the emergency department for wheezing and a number of patients (192) had been admitted previously for wheezing. These findings suggest that there is a subset of patients who are known to have recurrent wheezing, but lack adequate management to avoid expensive hospital services. Very few of these patients were followed by asthma specialists and there was a marked underuse of anti-inflammatory drugs. This study characterized a subset of patients-at-risk for requiring emergency treatment for wheezing. There is a need to institute aggressive interventions to improve the quality of care and prevent costly emergency department visits.

The desmosome and hemidesmosome in cutaneous autoimmunity

Epidermal blister formation is the hallmark of three cutaneous autoimmune diseases: pemphigus foliaceous (PF), pemphigus vulgaris (PV) and bullous pemphigoid (BP). In PF and PV, blistering is due to acantholysis (cell-cell detachment) in the subcorneal and suprabasal epidermal layers, respectively, while BP is characterized by detachment of the basal epidermal cells from the underlying dermis. For several years, we have focused our research efforts on elucidating the pathogenic mechanisms operating in these bullous diseases. Early studies performed by our research group and others revealed that in all three diseases, the patients produce autoantibodies that bind to target antigens located on the surface of cells that are undergoing detachment. Thus it was hypothesized that these anti-epidermal autoantibodies played a role in initiating blister formation. We recognized that elucidating the normal mechanisms of epidermal cell-cell and cell-dermis adhesion would help us understand the abnormal epidermal cell detachment seen in these patients. We hypothesized that under normal conditions these adhesive mechanisms in the epidermis are complex and dynamic and mediated by the interaction of cell surface molecules unique to each layer of the epidermis. Also, we postulated that PV, PF and BP autoantibodies may cause cell detachment by impairing the function of their respective epidermal cell surfaces. Support for this hypothesis has come from recent studies which showed that PV and PF autoantibodies recognize distinct, yet related, desmosomal glycoproteins in the cadherin family of calcium-dependent adhesion molecules. The epidermal antigen in PV is desmoglein-3 (dsg3), while in PF it is desmoglein-1 (dsg1). These anti-epidermal autoantibodies have been shown to be pathogenic in passive transfer experiments. Neonatal mice injected with these antibodies develop intraepidermal blisters characteristic of the corresponding human disease. Autoantibodies in BP react with BP180 and BP230, two major components of the hemidesmosome, a cell structure involved in dermal-epidermal adhesion. Recent passive transfer mouse model studies performed in our laboratory have shown that anti-BP180 antibodies can induce subepidermal blistering in the experimental animals. Moreover, the pathogenic mechanism was shown to be dependent on complement activation and recruitment of neutrophils to the dermal-epidermal junction. In conclusion, desmosomal glycoproteins are the targets of autoimmune injury in PV and PF. The anti-epidermal autoantibodies may cause intraepidermal blisters by impairing the function of dsg1 and dsg3. In BP the hemidesmosome is the target. It appears that antiBP180 antibodies cause subepidermal blister formation by triggering a complement- and neutrophil-mediated inflammatory process.

Expression and prognostic value of proliferating cell nuclear antigen in transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder

Forty-eight patients with transitional cell carcinima (TCC) of the bladder were investigated. Routine paraffin-embedded sections were stained with proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA) monoclonal antibody in order to determine the growth fraction of the bladder tumors and to correlate this with tumor grade, stage, development of recurrence and survival rate during follow-up. PCNA positive staining was detected in 95.8% (46/48) of the tumors. The mean labeling index (LI) of superficial tumors (Ta-1, n = 28) was 12.58 +/- 12.33%, and 34.55 +/- 21.89% in invasive tumors (T2-4, n = 18). A similar correlation was found in association with tumor grade. The patients were followed up for a mean of 4.9 years (range 1-14 years). The mean PCNA LI in nonrecurrent (n = 21) and simple recurrent (n = 7) superficial tumors was 11.29 +/- 11.79% and 16.44 +/- 14.05%, respectively, the difference not being statistically significant. To access survival, tumors with a PCNA LI above and below the median level (21%) were compared. Those patients (n = 19) with an index of > 21% (the mean of all the PCNA values) had a worse prognosis than those (n = 27) with an index of < 21%, a difference which is statistically significant. These results suggest that PCNA LI in bladder cancer may prove to be an objective and quantitative assay of biological aggressiveness and provide significant prognostic information, although it does not help the selection of patients at risk of simple recurrence in superficial tumors.

Development and characterization of desmoglein-3 specific T cells from patients with pemphigus vulgaris

Pemphigus vulgaris (PV) is a cutaneous autoimmune disease characterized by blister formation in the suprabasilar layers of skin and mucosae and anti-desmoglein-3 (Dsg3) autoantibodies bound to the surface of lesional keratinocytes and circulating in the serum of patients. This disease can be reproduced in neonatal mice by passive transfer of patients' IgG, indicating that humoral immunity plays an important role in the pathogenesis of PV. Currently, the role of T lymphocytes in the development of PV is not clear. Here, we report that three immunoreactive segments of the ectodomain of Dsg3 specifically induced proliferation of T cells from PV patients. We found that T lymphocytes from 13 out of 14 patients responded to at least one of three Dsg3 peptides. T cells from controls and other patient groups did not respond to these Dsg3 peptides. The major T cell population stimulated by these Dsg3 peptides was CD4 positive. Dsg3-specific T cell lines and clones were developed and were shown to express a CD4 positive memory T cell phenotype. Upon stimulation, these cell lines and clones secreted a Th2-like cytokine profile. The Dsg3 responses of these T cells were restricted to HLA-DR, and not -DQ and -DP, of the major histocompatibility complex. This information will help to elucidate the cellular immune abnormalities leading to production of pathogenic IgG autoantibodies in patients with PV.

Spirometry in life-long non-smoking, healthy Chinese women in Taiwan

To establish the spirometric values for normal, healthy Chinese women in Taiwan, the spirometry of 506 life-long non-smoking, healthy Chinese women was examined, including 140 subjects over the age of 60 years. Significant correlations among age, height and forced vital capacity (FVC), forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1), FEV1/FVC%, peak expiratory flow (PEF), Vmax75, Vmax50, Vmax25 were found. However, there were no significant correlations between age and FEV1/FVC%, nor age and Vmax25 in the elderly group. FEV1 (FEV1*) and FVC (FVC*) were standardized to the overall mean height for elderly women using Cole's formula. The decline in FEV1* and FVC* with age were observed. The predicted value for the average 70-year-old woman with a height of 1.5 m derived from the present study is compared with those from other surveys of the elderly. The values from the present study are somewhat higher than the values from the Hong Kong study. The authors believe the fact that all of the present subjects were life-long non-smokers might explain the differences.

Cytokeratin fragment 19 (CYFRA 21-1) as a tumor marker in non-small cell lung cancer

To evaluate the diagnostic value of the serum cytokeratin 19 fragment (CYFRA 21-1) in bronchogenic carcinoma, we investigated the sera of 138 patients (58 with benign pulmonary disease and 80 with non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)) using immunoradiometric assay. The mean (SD) value of serum CYFRA 21-1 in NSCLC (13.26 (16.54)) was significantly higher than in benign lung diseases (1.74 (1.55)) (p < 0.0001). Sensitivity for CYFRA 21-1 (using 3.5 ng/ml, a cut-off value corresponding to a 95% specificity for benign pulmonary disease) in NSCL was 62%. Positive CYFRA 21-1 levels were significantly higher in 75% of patients with squamous cell carcinoma (n = 36) than in 53% with other NSCLC (n = 44) (p < 0.05). CYFRA 21-1 levels were significantly different between squamous cell carcinoma (17.28 (19.94)) and the other NSCLC (9.96 (12.44)) (P < 0.05). Elevated CYFRA 21-1 levels in patients with stage III and IV disease (n = 64, 18.19 (26.51)) were significantly higher than in stage I and II (n = 16, 4.41 (5.76)) (p < 0.02). The positive rate of CYFRA 21-1 in tumor stage I and II was only 37%. Our results indicate that CYFRA 21-1 may be a useful tumor marker in NSCLC, especially in squamous cell carcinoma. However, CYFRA 21-1 cannot be used for the diagnosis of early stage disease of NSCLC. CYFRA 21-1 may also contribute to the monitoring of NSCLC.

Urinary PCO2 for hemodynamically unstable patients

BACKGROUND

Gastric intramural pH (pHi) derived from gastric PCO2 has been successfully used to assess splanchnic ischemia for patients with unstable hemodynamics, but with some limitations. Urinary bladder, also an easily accessible hollow viscus, should provide as a useful route for the same purpose. However, no study has used urinary PCO2 to evaluate the adequacy of perfusion in critically ill patients.

METHODS

Fifty patients admitted to intensive care unit were included and divided into hemodynamically stable and unstable groups. Several parameters such as arterial pressure, dopamine dosage, heart rate, serum lactate, arterial blood gas, urinary PCO2, and concentrations of Na, K and Cl in urine were measured. Patients with some other renal or pre-renal conditions that might affect urinary PCO2 were excluded.

RESULTS

Urinary PCO2 was markedly higher (78.6 +/- 9.9 vs. 43.1 +/- 1.7 mmHg, p < 0.0001) in unstable group. Serum anion gap level, dopamine dosage and heart rate were significantly higher and PaO2/FiO2 ratio as well as mean arterial pressure was lower in unstable group. Serum lactate, arterial pH and other parameters failed to distinguish between groups. Dopamine dosage significantly correlated with urinary PCO2 (r = 0.5357, p = 0.0149) in unstable group.

CONCLUSIONS

With careful selection of patients, urinary PCO2 can effectively differentiate hemodynamically unstable patients from stable ones. It also correlates significantly with dopamine dosage in patients with unstable hemodynamics.

Asynchronous DNA replication between 15q11.2q12 homologs: cytogenetic evidence for maternal imprinting and delayed replication

DNA replication kinetics of Prader-Willi/Angelman syndrome region of 15q11.2q12 was studied without synchronization in five human amniotic cell and five skin fibroblast strains with a marker 15 chromosome, i.e., 15p+ or der(15), as cytological marker to distinguish between the two homologs. BrdU-33258 Hoechst-Giemsa techniques were used to analyze and compare the late replication patterns in the 15q11.2q12 region between the homologs. Asynchronous replication between the homologs was observed in both amniocytes and fibroblasts. From cells of a marker 15 of known parental origin, the paternal 15q11.2q12 replicated earlier than that of the maternal 15 in 92%-95% of asynchronous metaphases. The remaining 5%-8% of asynchronous metaphases displayed maternal early/paternal late replication. This mosaic pattern of replication in the 15q11.2q12 region may be due to methylation mosaicism of genomic imprinting or a relative lack of self-control of replication. These results provide cytogenetic evidence of maternal imprinting and delayed replication in the 15q11.2q12 region.

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis: a case report

Aspergillus-associated pulmonary diseases are aspergilloma, invasive aspergillosis, and allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is caused by a complex of immunologic reactions to the presence of the Aspergillus species colonizing the bronchial trees. The disease is not common in Taiwan. The major diagnostic criteria for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis are 1) bronchial asthma, 2) pulmonary infiltration, 3) peripheral eosinophilia, 4) positive skin test to Aspergillus fumigatus, 5) serum precipitin to Aspergillus fumigatus, 6) elevated serum Ig E, and 7) central bronchiectasis. We report a case who has had a chronic asthmatic-like cough for 5 years. He worked in a silo for two years before he was troubled by the disease. He was admitted to hospitals four times in the past, and received five bronchoscopic examinations and one open lung biopsy without definite diagnosis. Sputum eosinophilia directed our attention to the differentiation of eosinophilic lung diseases. A bronchogram which revealed central brochiectasis helped us to make the diagnosis of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, despite negative sputum culture for Aspergillus fumigatus and negative serum precipitin to Aspergillus fumigatus.

Prescribing patterns in primary health care in Taiwan

To identify the prescribing patterns in public group practice centers (GPCs), 84,453 prescription sheets written by primary care physicians in 168 GPCs during the period from December 7-12, 1992, were collected and analyzed. The average number of drugs per script was 4.3 and the ratio of drug to total medical expense was 44%. The 5 most common diagnoses were, in a descending order, upper respiratory tract infection, skeletomuscular and joint disease, hypertension, functional gastrointestinal disorder (including peptic ulcer) and diabetes mellitus. The top 5 most commonly dispensed drug categories were antacids and anti-ulcer drugs, anti-cough and anti-cold preparations, vitamins, simple analgesics and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, accounting for 48.8% of total prescriptions. In view of the frequency of relevant diagnoses, the overuse of antacids, vitamins, intravenous nutrient and electrolyte solutions, anti-cold preparations and antibiotics was apparent, as was that of drugs of questionable pharmacological value. These data indicate that polypharmacy is a widespread phenomenon and confirms our long-term concern over irrational drug use in GPCs in Taiwan. Both administrative and educational intervention should be implemented to improve prescribing quality at the primary health care level.

Expansion of mycobacterium-reactive gamma delta T cells by a subset of memory helper T cells

Human gamma delta T cells expressing the V gamma 9/V delta 2 T-cell receptor have been previously found to proliferate in response to certain microorganisms and to expand throughout life, presumably because of extrathymic activation by foreign antigens. In vitro expansion of V gamma 9/V delta 2 cells by mycobacteria has been previously shown to be dependent on accessory cells. In order to gain an insight into the mechanisms involved in the expansion of these cells, we have undertaken to identify the peripheral blood subset of cells on which proliferation of V gamma 9/V delta 2 cells in response to mycobacteria is dependent. Contrary to their role in antigen presentation to alpha beta T cells, professional antigen-presenting cells, such as monocytes, B cells, and dendritic cells, were unable to provide the cellular support for the expansion of V gamma 9/V delta 2 cells. Selective depletion of T-cell subsets, as well as the use of highly purified T-cell populations, indicated that the only subset of peripheral blood cells that could expand V gamma 9/V delta 2 cells were CD4+ CD45RO+ CD7- alpha beta T cells. These cells underwent distinct intracellular signaling events after stimulation with the mycobacterial antigen. Expansion of V gamma 9/V delta 2 cells by alpha beta T cells was dependent on cell-cell contact. This is the first evidence that a small subset of the memory helper T-cell population is exclusively responsible for the peripheral expansion of V gamma 9/V delta 2 cells. These data illustrate a unique aspect of antigen recognition by gamma delta T cells and provide new means to study their immune defense role.

Use of esmolol to prevent hemodynamic changes during intubation in general anesthesia

To assess the minimal effective dosage of esmolol to prevent hypertension and tachycardia during laryngoscopy and endotracheal intubation in fentanyl-pretreated anesthesia, a double-blinded, randomized study was conducted. Two hundred patients undergoing elective, noncardiac surgeries were randomly allocated into four groups: group A received saline, group B esmolol 20 mg, group C esmolol 40 mg and group D esmolol 60 mg intravenously. General anesthesia was induced with 0.1 mg/kg vecuronium, 5 micrograms/kg fentanyl and 0.3 mg/kg etomidate. Heart rates (HR), systolic blood pressures (SBP), mean arterial pressures (MAP) and diastolic blood pressures (DBP) were recorded before induction, after induction, before intubation, 30 seconds, 1 minute, 2 minutes, 4 minutes, 6 minutes, and 10 minutes after intubation. After intubation HR and SBP increased significantly in group A (86.7 beats/min, 166.6 mmHg) in comparison with groups C (77.6 beats/min, 153.9 mmHg) and D (73.4 beats/min, 153.4 mmHg) (p < 0.05). Tachycardia (HR > 100) was found in 13 of 50(26%) patients in group A, 10 of 50(20%) patients in group B, 7 of 50(14%) patients in group C and 2 of 50(4%) patients in group D. Hypertension (SBP > 180) was found in 18(36%) patients in group A, 19(38%) patients in group B, 9(18%) patients in group C, and 6(12%) patients in group D. When compared with group A, only group D had significantly lower incidence of these adverse events (p < 0.05). In conclusion, fentanyl 5 micrograms/kg could not completely prevent the hemodynamic changes associated with endotracheal intubation, and 60 mg esmolol was observed to have positive effect in helping to control these changes.

Nucleolar organizer regions in small cell carcinoma of lung

Agyrophilic staining of nucleolar organizer regions (NOR) has been used to differentiate between cells of small cell carcinoma and lymphocytes in tissue specimens. We used cytologic smears which were previously Papanicolaou-destained to study the one-step agyrophilic staining technique for nucleolar organizer regions (AgNOR) in cell of small cell carcinoma and lymphocyte. The purposes of this study were to assess the feasibility and usefulness of AgNOR staining in diagnostic cytology and to try to set up a procedure that could be used on prestained smears for retrospective study. While the NOR of each lymphocyte appeared to be one round dot after AgNOR staining, the NOR of cell of small cell carcinoma showed dots, slightly variable in size and shape. The mean number of NOR was significantly higher (p < 0.01) in cells of small cell carcinoma (4.7 +/- 0.7) than in lymphocytes (1.4 +/- 0.4). In conclusion, AgNOR staining was demonstrated to be a useful method to differentiate between cells of small cell carcinoma and lymphocyte in Papanicolaou-destained smears.

Finite element analysis of cerebral contusion

Finite element analysis was carried out to study the mechanism of cerebral contusion. Clinical findings indicate that most cerebral contusions in the absence of skull fracture occur at the frontal and temporal lobes. To explain these observations, cavitation and shear strain theories have long been advocated. Plane strain finite element models of a parasagittal section of the human head were developed in the present study. The model was first validated against a set of experimental results from the literature. Frontal and occipital impacts were then simulated, and pressure and shear stress distributions in the brain were compared. While comparable negative pressures always developed in the contrecoup regions, shear stress distributions remained nearly identical regardless of the impact direction, consistent with the clinically observed pattern for contusion. Therefore, shear strain theory appears to account better for the clinical findings in cerebral contusion.

Nucleolar organizer regions in smears of pleural effusion

Agyrophil staining was applied to nucleolar organizer regions (NOR) to differentiate cells of adenocarcinoma and histiomesotheliosis in pleural effusion. The smears were either nuclearly unstained, but cytoplasmically counterstained by Papanicolaou method or Papanicolaou-destained before agyrophil staining of nucleolar organizer regions (AgNOR). The purposes of this study were to assess the feasibility and usefulness of AgNOR staining in diagnostic cytology and to try to set up a procedure that could be used on prestained smears for retrospective study. All smears showed good background and cellular outline. The distribution of NOR was either intranuclearly or in the nucleoplasm diffusely. In previously nuclearly unstained smears, NOR showed granular to powder-like appearance. The mean number of NOR in adenocarcinoma (38.4 +/- 12.5) was significantly higher than that in histiomesotheliosis (15.6 +/- 2.9). In Papanicolaou-destained smears, the NOR showed confluent dots. The mean number of NOR was much lower as compared to that of previously nuclearly unstained smears. Furthermore, the mean number of NOR in adenocarcinoma (3.6 +/- 1.4) showed no significant difference with that of histiomesotheliosis (2.7 +/- 0.8). In conclusion, AgNOR staining is one of the methods to differentiate benign from malignant cells, but not in Papanicolaou-destained smears.

A rare 6q11+ heteromorphism: cytogenetic analysis and in situ hybridization

A rare variant of 6q11+ heteromorphism was found in a fetus and the mother during amniocentesis. The G- and Q-banding and DA/DAPI stain were negative. The C-banding was positive and the C-banded segment was 3-fold longer in the variant than in its homologue. Neither of the C-banded regions of chromosomes 6 decondensed when exposed to distamycin A or 5-azacytidine. A DNA replication study indicated that the C-banded variant was late replicating. The lateral asymmetry observed in the 6q11 variant after one replication cycle in 5-bromodeoxyuridine may result from an unequal interstrand distribution of thymidine in the repetitive DNA. Fluorescent in situ hybridization using a chromosome-6-specific alpha-satellite probe (D6Z1) demonstrated hybridization signals on the centromere of chromosome 6. The 6q11 variant showed a signal which was 3-fold larger than its homologue. These results indicate that the 6q11 variant is an amplification of a chromosome-6-specific alpha repeat, and the size of the hybridization signal correlates with the size of the laterally asymmetric and C-banded region.

Nonfatal systemic allergic reactions induced by skin testing and immunotherapy

Skin testing and immunotherapy with allergens can induce systemic allergic reactions. In order to identify factors associated with systemic allergic reactions, a prospective study was conducted from 1976-1989 with more than 10,000 patients being tested and a total of 513,368 injections being recorded. Our study showed that the probability of inducing systemic allergic reactions by skin testing was less than 0.02% and the probability of systemic allergic reactions caused by immunotherapy was 2.9%. The female to male ratio was 3 to 2. The highest incidence of systemic allergic reactions was in patients between the ages of 16 to 39 years of age. The majority of systemic allergic reactions occurred when patients were on increasing doses rather than maintenance doses. More than 95% of systemic allergic reactions were associated with pollens and most of them happened between the concentration of 100 and 1000 PNU/mL. There was no increased incidence during grass or ragweed pollination seasons in those patients who received grass or ragweed injections during the respective seasons. Only 50% of systemic allergic reactions developed within 30 minutes after injections. The three most important factors determining the incidence of systemic allergic reactions are the type of allergens, the "rate" of increase of allergen concentrations, and sensitivity of the patients to allergens. The prick test at initial allergy assessment can be used to "rule out," with a high degree of certainty, the likelihood of systemic allergic reactions. The prick test is easy to perform and it is cost-effective. Prick tests and RAST together are helpful in identifying the patients and the allergens at higher risk of systemic allergic reactions.

B cell differentiation. II. Isotype potential of a single B cell

Clonal, functionally responsive B cells are important tools for analyzing B cell activation and differentiation. Previously, we developed a method to immortalize murine B lymphoblast cells using an oncogene-carrying retroviral vector. The immortalized B cells express a cell surface phenotype similar to that of normal splenic B cells. These cells were shown to respond to B cell polyclonal mitogens and IL-4. More significantly, these cells could form conjugates with TH2 cells in the presence of a T cell superantigen. The T-B interaction promoted by the T cell superantigen resulted in B cell differentiation as demonstrated by IgM secretion and switching to IgG1 production. In this report, we analyze Ig isotype potential using two retrovirus-immortalized B cell clones. The clonality of both B cell clones was confirmed by Southern blot analysis using JH probes. It was found that anti-CD3-activated TH1 and TH2 cells promoted clonal B cells to differentiate into IgM-secreting cells. More significantly, activated TH1 cells promoted clonal B cells to switch to IgG2a production, whereas activated TH2 cells promoted clonal B cells to switch to IgG1 production. Thus, depending on which type of T helper cell a given B cell interacts with, a single B cell has the potential to switch to more than one Ig isotype. Addition of rIL-4 and anti-IFN-gamma to cultures containing TH1 and B cells resulted in IgG1 production (in addition to IgG2a production). Similarly, addition of IFN-gamma and anti-IL-4 to cultures containing TH2 and B cells resulted in IgG2a production (in addition to IgG1 production). Therefore, interaction of B cells with a given type of T helper cells could commit the B cells to a given Ig isotype. However, the presence of exogenous cytokines could divert B cells to switch to other Ig isotypes.