Histopathological Characterization of Tail Injury and Traumatic Neuroma Development after Tail Docking in Piglets

Tail docking of neonatal pigs is widely used as a measure to reduce the incidence of tail biting, a complex management problem in the pig industry. Concerns exist over the long-term consequences of tail docking for possible tail stump pain sensitivity due to the development of traumatic neuromas in injured peripheral nerves. Tail stumps were obtained post mortem from four female pigs at each of 1, 4, 8 and 16 weeks following tail amputation (approximately two-thirds removed) by a gas-heated docking iron on post natal day 3. Tissues were processed routinely for histopathological examination. Non-neural inflammatory and reparative epidermal and dermal changes associated with tissue thickening and healing were observed 1 to 4 months after docking. Mild neutrophilic inflammation was present in some cases, although this and other degenerative and non-neural reparative changes are not likely to have caused pain. Traumatic neuroma and neuromatous tissue development was not observed 1 week after tail docking, but was evident 1 month after tail docking. Over time there was marked nerve sheath and axonal proliferation leading to the formation of neuromata, which were either localized and circumscribed or comprised of multiple axons dispersed within granulation tissue. Four months after tail resection, neuroma formation was still incomplete, with possible implications for sensitivity of the tail stump.

Anatomical and histological study of the dorsal and ventral nasal conchal bullae in normal horses

The morphology of the dorsal conchal bulla (DCB) and ventral conchal bulla (VCB) are poorly described. The recent recognition that these bullae can become infected, causing chronic unilateral nasal discharge, has stimulated interest in these structures. Fourteen cadaveric horse heads were transected sagittally midline and dissected to expose the nasal conchal bullae. The dimensions of each bulla, the number and orientation of drainage apertures, and cellulae septae were recorded. Randomly selected samples were examined histologically. The mean DCB and VCB lengths were 78  and 57 mm, respectively; equivalent to 13.9 per cent and 10.2 per cent of skull length, respectively. The mean DCB and VCB heights were 29  and 28 mm, respectively; equivalent to 5.2 per cent and 5 per cent of skull length, respectively. The DCB was larger than the VCB, containing more septae, cellulae and drainage apertures. No communications were identified between the bullae and the immediately adjacent paranasal sinuses. Histology revealed that the bullae consist of ciliated, pseudostratified, columnar epithelium over glandular submucosa often overlying turbinate bone and, variably, hyaline cartilage. This more detailed description of equine DCB and VCB anatomy will hopefully facilitate successful treatment of their disorders.

Clinical Research Abstracts of the British Equine Veterinary Association Congress 2015

REASONS FOR PERFORMING STUDY

The morphology of the dorsal (DCB) and ventral (VCB) nasal conchal bullae, including their cellulae, drainage and histology, are poorly described. The recent recognition that these bullae can become infected, causing chronic unilateral nasal discharge has stimulated interest in these structures. A more complete understanding of their anatomy would be useful in the diagnosis and treatment of their disorders.

OBJECTIVES

To document the structure, drainage and histology of the equine DCB and VCB.

STUDY DESIGN

Descriptive.

METHODS

Fourteen fresh cadaveric horse heads, were transected sagittally midline and dissected to expose the nasal conchal bullae. The dimensions of each bulla, the number of drainage apertures, the number of cellulae and orientation of the septae were recorded. Representative samples were collected for histopathology.

RESULTS

The mean lengths of the DCB and VCB were 77.7 mm (range 48-105 mm) and 57.1 mm (range 34-86 mm) respectively; equivalent to 13.8% and 10.2% of skull length, respectively. The mean widths of the DCB and VCB were 28.5 mm (range 21-35 mm) and 28.2 mm (range 13-41 mm) respectively; equivalent to 5.1% and 5% of skull length respectively. The median number of drainage apertures from the DCB and VCB were 2 and 1 respectively. The median number of cellulae within the DCB and VCB were 3 and 2, respectively. No communications were identified between the DCB and VCB and the adjacent paranasal sinuses. Histology revealed that the bullae consisted of ciliated, pseudostratified, columnar epithelium supported by a glandular submucosa often overlying turbinate bone and, variably, hyaline cartilage.

CONCLUSIONS

The morphology of the equine nasal conchal bullae is quite variable. The DCB is generally a more complex structure than the VCB, containing more septae, cellulae and drainage apertures. This more detailed description of DCB and VCB anatomy will hopefully facilitate successful treatment of their disorders. Ethical animal research: Research ethics committee oversight not currently required by this conference: the study was performed on material obtained from an abattoir.

SOURCE OF FUNDING

None. Competing interests: None declared.

Clinical, microbiological and histological findings in lambs affected by 'salivary abomasum disease'

'Salivary abomasum disease' is a common syndrome in Greece affecting lambs and kids from three to 17 days of age. In this case series, we present clinical and laboratory findings from 37 affected lambs presented alive and subsequently euthanased for welfare reasons and necropsied, and also from 24 other lambs submitted dead that were also necropsied. The clinical signs in the 37 lambs presented alive included lethargy (100 per cent), absence of sucking (83.8 per cent), weakness (37.8 per cent), abdominal distension (40.5 per cent) and increased frequency of urination (24.3 per cent). Diarrhoea was not observed in any affected lambs. At necropsy of these 37 lambs, the abomasum was distended with gas (70.3 per cent), saliva (43.2 per cent) along with mixed milk clots and gastric secretions; while multiple small mucosal and serosal haemorrhages with blood clots ('coffee grains') were recorded (91.9 per cent). Eight of 37 lambs that were examined alive, had elevated blood urea nitrogen concentrations (21.6 per cent). The pH of the abomasal contents ranged from 1.0 to 2.8; Escherichia coli was cultured from six of 37 (16.2 per cent) abomasal fluid samples. A mild to moderate inflammatory cell infiltrate was present in the mucosal lamina propria of 13 of 15 abomasal samples (86.6 per cent). Kidneys were paler than normal in 13 of the total 61 lambs necropsied (21.3 per cent); while acute tubular necrosis was evident on histopathological examination of 11 of 12 examined pale kidneys (91.6 per cent). The low abomasal pH and reported successful treatment with oral sodium bicarbonate suggest that metabolic acidosis may develop during the disease; however, further studies, including blood gas analysis, and determination of D- and L-lactic acid concentrations, are necessary to confirm this hypothesis.

Analysis of airway epithelial regeneration and repair following endobronchial brush biopsy in sheep

Understanding the fundamental processes involved in repairing the airway wall following injury is fundamental to understanding the way in which these processes are perturbed during disease pathology. Indeed complex diseases such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) have at their core evidence of airway wall remodeling processes that play a crucial functional role in these diseases. The authors sought to understand the dynamic cellular events that occur during bronchial airway epithelial repair in sheep. The injury was induced by endobronchial brush biopsy (BBr), a process that causes epithelial débridement and induces a consequential repair process. In addition, the current experimental protocol allowed for the time-dependent changes in airway wall morphology to be studied both within and between animals. The initial débridement was followed by evidence of dedifferentiation in the intact epithelium at the wound margins, followed by proliferation of cells both within the epithelium and in the deeper wall structures, notably in association with the submucosal glands and smooth muscle bundles. Seven days after injury, although the airway wall was thickened at the site of damage, the epithelial layer was intact, with evidence of redifferentiation. These studies, in demonstrating broad agreement with previous studies in small animals, indicate the wider relevance of this system as a comparative model and should provide a solid basis upon which to further characterize the critical cellular and molecular interactions that underlie both effective restitution and pathological repair.

Pulmonary angiocentric lymphoma (lymphomatoid granulomatosis) in a donkey

A 36-year-old donkey developed dyspnoea, pyrexia, hypoalbuminaemia and oedema. Following continued clinical deterioration the donkey was humanely destroyed. Grossly, there were numerous nodules (5-10mm) scattered throughout the lung. Microscopically, the lung was infiltrated by an angiocentric and bronchocentric to diffuse mixed population of small mature and atypical lymphocytes, histiocytes, plasma cells and fewer eosinophils. The infiltrate was composed of numerous small mature and fewer atypical CD3(+) T lymphocytes. Low numbers of CD20(+) and CD79a(+) B cells, some atypical, accompanied the T cells. These infiltrates were consistent with an angiocentric lymphoma and resembled lymphomatoid granulomatosis, an Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-associated human tumour. Immunohistochemistry for EBV latent membrane protein and polymerase chain reaction analysis for equine gamma herpesvirus DNA were negative. To the authors' knowledge this is the first case of angiocentric lymphoma reported in a donkey and the first case of lymphomatoid granulomatosis-type disease in an animal in which possible concurrent infection with a gamma herpesvirus has been investigated.

Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma with sebaceous differentiation in the mandibular salivary gland of a dog

A carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma was diagnosed in the left mandibular salivary gland of an 8-year-old female spayed dog. The animal presented with a large nonpainful swelling in the left submandibular region. A computed tomography scan detected an irregularly enhancing soft tissue mass that was closely associated with the left external ear canal and extended to the left wing of the atlas. On surgical exploration, the mass was intimately associated with the left mandibular salivary gland. Both the mass and the adjacent gland were removed, and the diagnosis was determined by histopathology. The tumor was comprised of basaloid and low columnar epithelial cells, many glandular units formed by well-differentiated sebocytes, and multifocal regions of necrosis, mineralization, and hemorrhage. Salivary gland tumors with sebaceous differentiation are very rare in animals, with one previously reported case in a cat.

A comparative review of melanocytic neoplasms

Melanoma is a devastating disease frequently encountered within both veterinary and human medicine. Molecular changes linked with neoplastic transformation of melanocytes include mutations in genes that encode proteins intrinsic to the regulatory pathways of two tumor suppressor proteins (retinoblastoma protein and p53), proto-oncogene mutation to oncogenes, altered expression of epithelial cadherin and CD44 adhesion molecules, and upregulation of angiogenic factors and other growth factors. Histologic evaluation of the primary mass is the most common means of diagnosis, with cytology used more frequently to document metastasis. Melanoma's highly variable histologic and cytologic patterns can make diagnosis by either method problematic. Adherent epithelioid morphology, including signet ring forms, and nonadherent round and spindle forms are recognized, with pigmentation an inconsistent finding. The site of the tumor, the thickness of the primary tumor or depth of invasion, and the number of mitotic figures per high-power field or per millimeter are used histologically to predict biologic behavior, whereas site and degree of pleomorphism are typically used for cytologic preparations. Diagnosis of amelanotic melanoma can be aided by ancillary diagnostic techniques. Tumor cells are usually positive for vimentin, S100, neuron-specific enolase, and Melan-A, and negative for cytokeratin. Melan-A as a positive marker is not as sensitive as the others are but is likely more specific. Monoclonal antibodies to human melanosome-specific antigens 1 and 5 cross-react with canine antigens for a combined sensitivity rate of 83%. Mouse monoclonal antibody IBF9 specifically recognizes canine melanoma antigen and also has good sensitivity. Serologic markers, including cytokines, cell adhesion molecules, and melanoma-inhibitory activity, are being investigated as potential sentinels of melanoma. Currently, there is no single diagnostic technique capable of differentiating benign from malignant melanocytic neoplasms or predicting survival time.

Calcium, cross-bridges, and the Frank-Starling relationship

The steep relationship between active force and length in cardiac muscle is based on a length dependence of myofilament Ca(2+) sensitivity. However, it is not muscle length but the lateral spacing between actin and myosin filaments that sets the level of Ca(2+) sensitivity, mainly through modulation of myosin-mediated activation of the thin filament.

Growth hormone replacement therapy in children with medulloblastoma: use and effect on tumor control

PURPOSE

Progress has been made in the treatment of medulloblastoma, the most common childhood malignant brain tumor: However, many long-term survivors will have posttherapy growth hormone insufficiency with resultant linear growth retardation. Growth hormone replacement therapy (GHRT) may significantly improve growth, but there is often reluctance to initiate GHRT because of concerns of an increased likelihood of tumor relapse.

PATIENTS AND METHODS

This study retrospectively reviewed the use of GHRT for survivors of medulloblastoma in 11 neuro-oncology centers in North America who received initial treatment for disease between 1980 and 1993 to determine its impact on disease control. A Landmark analysis was used to evaluate the relative risk of relapse in surviving patients.

RESULTS

Five hundred forty-five consecutive patients less than 15 years of age at diagnosis were identified. Six-year progression-free survival (mean +/- SD) was 40% +/- 5% in children less than 3 years of age at diagnosis compared with 59% +/- 3% for older patients. Older patients with total or near-total resections (P = .003) and localized disease at diagnosis (P < .0001) had the highest likelihood of survival. One hundred seventy patients (33% +/- 3% of the cohort) received GHRT. GHRT use varied widely among institutions, ranging from 5% to 73%. GHRT was begun a mean of 3.9 years after diagnosis, later in children younger than 3 years at diagnosis (5.4 years). By Landmark analyses, for those surviving 2, 3, and 5 years after diagnosis, there was no evidence that GHRT increased the rate of disease relapse.

CONCLUSION

This large retrospective review demonstrates that GHRT is underutilized in survivors of medulloblastoma and is used relatively late in the course of the illness. GHRT is not associated with an increased likelihood of disease relapse.

Cerebral vascular hamartomas in five dogs

Vascular hamartomas are considered developmental lesions rather than true neoplasms. Reports of such anomalies in the canine brain are scarce, and their classification is confusing. This case series of vascular hamartomas from the brains of five dogs was characterized using histochemistry and immunohistochemistry, in addition to gross and microscopic findings. All five hamartomas were located in the telencephalon, three in the pyriform lobe, without any predilection for the left or right side. Each hamartoma consisted of a proliferation of thin-walled vessels which varied in caliber. These vessels were elastin-negative, with varying amounts of collagen and no muscular component. In four of the five hamartomas, lining cells were actin- and factor VIII-positive. All five hamartomas contained glial fibrillary acid protein (GFAP)-positive parenchyma at moderate to high frequency, and four contained neurofilament-positive axons between component vessels. This report shows that vascular hamartomas in the canine brain are structural malformations for which immunohistochemistry is useful for accurate classification.

Hemihyperaesthesia and hyperresponsiveness resembling central pain syndrome in a dog with a forebrain oligodendroglioma

A 4-year-old male Boxer was presented with neurological signs referable to a right forebrain lesion that was confirmed with computed tomography. Whilst characteristic signs of a unilateral forebrain lesion were observed, the dominant and striking finding was a right-sided hemisensory disturbance characterised by hyperaesthesia and hyperresponsiveness. Necropsy revealed a gelatinous mass confined to the right forebrain that was identified histologically as an oligodendroglioma. The lesion was centred on the internal capsule and involved ventral frontal and temporal lobes and the ventrolateral thalamus, including lateral and medial parts of the ventrocaudal nuclear region (ventrobasilar complex) of the thalamus. On clinical and neuroanatomical grounds, the case exhibited features in common with central pain syndrome in human patients with thalamic lesions. These included a somatosensory disorder of hyperaesthesia affecting an entire side of the head and body, behavioural manifestations consistent with spontaneous pain and a lesion involving the ventrobasilar complex. Of interest, the hemisensory abnormality was ipsilateral to the lesion, contrasting with central pain in humans, in which clinical signs are contralateral to analogous lesions. It is suggested that species-specific differences in spinal cord organisation of pain pathways, particularly the greater bilateral projection of nociceptive afferents to thalamic relay nuclei in carnivores, may account for this disparity. Notably, central pain is rare in human patients with brain tumours, even those affecting the thalamus, and this may also be the case in dogs.

Length-dependence of cross-bridge mediated activation of the cardiac thin filament

Length-dependent Ca(2+)activation of the thin filament plays a critical role in the steep force-length relationship of cardiac muscle (Frank-Starling relation). Recent evidence indicates that the increase in myofilament Ca(2+)sensitivity and Ca(2+)-troponin C affinity that occurs with increase in sarcomere length results from a cooperative activation of the thin filament by attached cross-bridges. At short sarcomere length the Ca(2+)sensitivity is lower because the access of cross-bridges for actin is reduced. The aim of this study was to determine the length-dependence of myosin-mediated thin filament activation in skinned bovine ventricular muscle, as assayed by the generation of force with progressive reduction of MgATP concentration in the absence of Ca(2+). If the interaction between myosin and actin is weaker at short sarcomere length there should be a lower MgATP concentration needed to maintain the relaxed state. Contrary to expectation, the force-pMgATP relationship was not significantly influenced by change in sarcomere length. However this relationship became length-sensitive in the presence of phosphate analogs which stabilize weak-binding cross-bridges. We suggest that sarcomere length modulates Ca(2+)sensitivity by controlling the size of the population of thin filament regulatory units in the weakly-bound state.

Assuring access to dental care for low-income families in North Carolina. The NC Institute of Medicine Task Force Study

Following publication of the Task Force's recommendations for improving dental care access among low-income populations, North Carolina has taken several steps forward. The Division of Medical Assistance and the NC Dental Society are forming an advisory committee (comprising Medicaid patients, providers, and representatives from all elements of organized dentistry in the state) to review dental coverage and reimbursement rates. Using existing state funds, the NC Office of Research, Demonstrations and Rural Health Development has recruited 15 additional dentists and 1 dental hygienist to practice in community facilities serving low-income and uninsured patients. In 1999, the NC General Assembly revised the NC Dental Practice Act. Now, under the general direction of a licensed public health dentist, specially trained public health dental hygienists can perform oral health screenings and preventive and educational services outside the public school setting. The NC Institute of Medicine has begun exploring how to use dental hygienists to expand preventive dental services to underserved populations in federally-funded community or migrant health centers, state-funded health clinics, and the not-for-profit clinics that serve predominantly Medicaid, low-income or uninsured populations. A report is to be sent to the Governor and the Joint Legislative Commission on Governmental Operations no later than May 1, 2000. In 1999, the General Assembly directed the NC State Board of Dental Examiners to establish a procedure for streamlined licensing of dentists and dental hygienists who have been practicing in other states. This should increase the number of qualified dental practitioners in the state. The proposed rules governing the new licensing pathway are to be prepared by May 15, 2000. The Board of Dental Examiners will determine which new procedures will be needed to allow less burdensome and more timely entry of qualified out-of-state licensed applicants, while still affording the public the same protection as under current law and procedures. The NC Institute of Medicine is organizing a work group to study the feasibility of new residency programs in pediatric dentistry in addition to the current program located in Chapel Hill. The Institute will present a report to the General Assembly, no later than May 1, 2000. On April 1, 1999, the state Medicaid program authorized use of ADA Procedure Code 1203, which allows reimbursement for the application of dental fluoride varnishes without a full prophylaxis. It also authorized pediatricians, nurse practitioners, or physician's assistants to apply these varnishes to the teeth of young children, allowing more rapid dissemination of this proven preventive procedure among the state's low-income children. Implementation began in Carolina Access II and III project sites in the fall, 1999, and should spread statewide in 2000. Furthermore, the General Assembly's 1999 session expanded NC Health Choice to cover dental sealants, fluoride treatment, simple extractions, stainless steel crowns, and pulpotomies. Since publication of the Task Force Report in May 1999, considerable forward movement has taken place. It was apparent that the problems associated with poor dental care were severe, of immediate concern, and needed a broad, nonpolitical analysis followed by action from public and private-sector policy makers and shapers. The key recommendation of the Task Force (to increase the level of payment to dentists for services provided to Medicaid beneficiaries) was not acted on in the 1999 session of the General Assembly, but it was seriously discussed in legislative hearings and will be considered further in the year 2000 legislative session. Given the number of problems surrounding adequate health care for North Carolina's low-income populations, inquiries such as that described here can point the way to the concrete and feasible steps that need to be taken. (ABSTRACT TRUNCATED)

Effect of ionic strength on length-dependent Ca(2+) activation in skinned cardiac muscle

The length-dependence of myofilament Ca(2+) sensitivity is considered to be an important component of the steep force-length relationship in cardiac muscle (Frank-Starling relation). Recent studies suggest that Ca(2+) sensitivity is a function of the number of strong-binding cross-bridge interactions formed at a given sarcomere length. However, the length-dependent step in the thin filament activation process is still unknown. This study was designed to test the hypothesis that sarcomere length influences the transition of the thin filament from the unattached (blocked) state to the weakly bound (closed) state. This hypothesis was tested by determining the length-dependence of Ca(2+) sensitivity as a function of ionic strength in skinned bovine ventricular muscle. Previous studies have shown that reduction in ionic strength below a critical level, in the absence of Ca(2+), shifts the thin filament to the closed state. In this study normal Ca(2+) regulation was maintained at low ionic strength but the length-dependence of Ca(2+) sensitivity and the length-dependence of Ca(2+) binding were eliminated. These results are consistent with the hypothesis that the transition from the blocked to the closed state is a function of filament geometry as well as Ca(2+) and ionic strength.

Monitored control programme for proliferative enteropathy on British pig farms

The effect of control programmes on proliferative enteropathy and its causative agent (Lawsonia intracellularis) was investigated on four farrow-to-finish pig farms in Britain. Faeces samples from groups of boars and gilts in breeding programmes, and from preweaning and postweaning pigs were monitored prospectively every month for six months by a L intracellularis-specific polymerase chain reaction (PCR). On one farm with 150 sows, an outbreak of acute proliferative enteropathy in boars and gilts was controlled clinically by the use of tiamulin and chlortetracycline. The percentage of detectable PCR-positive pigs decreased from between 50 to 70 per cent to zero in the treated pigs and their progeny less than 14 weeks old, but clinical signs of the disease and PCR-positive pigs were detected in some 14-week-old pigs derived from the treated groups. On another farm with 160 sows, an outbreak of chronic proliferative enteropathy in six-week-old pigs (23 to 26 per cent PCR-positive) was controlled by the use of oral tylosin phosphate. Faeces samples from the medicated pigs on this farm remained PCR-negative during the study period, whereas samples from unmedicated control pigs showed that the infection persisted in some pigs for at least six weeks. The two other monitored farms remained PCR-negative and clinically negative for the disease during the study period. These farms treated the pigs regularly with oral chlortetracycline.

Overview of the Diabetes Initiative of South Carolina

Implementation is underway for many of these programs, and there are descriptions of activities elsewhere in this symposium. The Board recognizes that in dealing with the complications of a chronic disease like diabetes, many years of intense effort will be needed before significant results may be appreciated. Progress will be monitored regularly by the Surveillance Council and SCDCP/DHEC, and modifications of the plan will be made by the Board at intervals after review of the data. We are optimistic that over the next decade, this system will make a significant impact to reduce mortality, morbidity, and costs of diabetes, and the result will be an increased quality of life for people affected by diabetes in South Carolina.

Questionnaire survey of proliferative enteropathy on British pig farms

Risk factors for proliferative enteropathy were investigated by means of a postal questionnaire survey of randomly selected British pig farms. Replies were received from 319 (56 per cent) of the 569 questionnaires posted, representing 1.5 per cent of the total number of pig farms in Britain. Thirty-one per cent of the farms had experienced at least one episode of proliferative enteropathy within the previous three years, usually confirmed by their veterinary surgeon. There was a strong association for the occurrence of proliferative enteropathy in herds of over 500 sows (P < 0.005) and in herds with enzootic pneumonia (P < 0.01). Outbreaks had occurred in five of the six nucleus herds surveyed, the other had only 80 sows. Outbreaks occurred in 32 of 69 herds that had obtained their replacement boars from nucleus herds (P < 0.05), suggesting that infected boars may carry the disease into distant herds. The use of either fully slatted (P < 0.05) or fully meshed floors (P < 0.01) above sunken pits in buildings used to house pigs immediately after weaning, and the use of partially (P < 0.05) or fully slatted floors (P < 0.05) in buildings used to house pigs two to six months old, were risk factors for outbreaks of proliferative enteropathy, compared with the use of straw bedding or solid floors. The destocking of entire buildings containing pigs two to four months old before the introduction of fresh pigs, was associated with a reduced risk (P < 0.05), but the destocking of selected pens rather than the whole building had no such association. The type of diet, or feeding or watering system and the types of buildings used were not identified as risk factors.

Development of persistent intestinal infection and excretion of Lawsonia intracellularis by piglets

Challenge experiments using Lawsonia intracellularis as oral inocula have established its aetiological role in porcine proliferative enteropathy. Thirty piglets, in four groups, were weaned at 21 days of age and inoculated orally at 24 days. Six piglets were challenged with 1.0 x 10(8) L intracellularis strain 916/91 (NCTC 12657) passaged 12 times in vitro, six with 5.0 x 10(8) of the same strain, seven with 3.0 x 10(8) L intracellularis strain LR 189/5/83, passaged nine times, and 11 controls were dosed with sucrose-potassium glutamate buffer. An immunofluorescence assay for L intracellularis was applied to faecal smears and a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) incorporating L intracellularis-specific primers was applied to extracts of bacterial DNA derived from the faeces samples. Up to five pigs in each challenge group excreted detectable L intracellularis in faeces, in samples taken between two and 10 weeks after challenge. Some of the pigs had up to 7 x 10(8) L intracellularis g-1 faeces. The average weight gains of the higher dose challenge groups were moderately below those of the control pigs between three and nine weeks after challenge; diarrhoea was also observed in six pigs, two to four weeks after challenge. Numerous L intracellularis were detected in the intestines of all the pigs challenged with strain LR 189/5/83 and two of the pigs challenged with 916/91, but not in other tissues.

Treatment and prevention of porcine proliferative enteropathy with oral tiamulin

The effect of an oral treatment or prevention programme, incorporating the antibiotic tiamulin, on the development of proliferative enteropathy in experimentally challenged pigs was studied. Twenty weaner pigs were challenged orally with a virulent inoculum of Lawsonia intracellularis strain LR189/5/83, a British isolate of the causative agent of porcine proliferative enteropathy, and seven control pigs were dosed with a buffer solution. Seven of the 20 challenged pigs were left untreated; they gained less weight than the controls and three of them developed mild to moderate diarrhoea two weeks after the challenge. All seven developed lesions, six visible grossly, of proliferative enteropathy, and numerous intracellular L intracellularis were detected in sections of the intestines examined three weeks after the challenge. To test a 'prevention' dosing strategy for tiamulin, six of the challenged pigs were dosed orally with 50 ppm tiamulin, incorporated in a 2 per cent stabilised premix, given from two days before the challenge until they were euthanased. To test a 'treatment' strategy, the remaining group of seven challenged pigs were dosed orally with 150 ppm tiamulin given in the premix from seven days after challenge until they were euthanased. All the control pigs and the 13 pigs treated with tiamulin, either before or after challenge, remained clinically normal and had no specific lesions of proliferative enteropathy in sections of the intestines examined post mortem.

CD40 cross-linking inhibits specific antibody production by human B cells

Ligation of CD40 on B cells is a co-stimulatory signal for proliferation, antibody secretion, heavy chain switching and rescue from apoptosis after somatic mutation in the germinal centre. The importance of these manifold responses to CD40 activation for humoral immunity is exemplified by the inability of boys with X-linked hyper IgM syndrome to make IgG, IgE or IgA due to a mutation in in the gene coding for CD40 ligand (CD40L). In the present study, we have investigated the effect of CD40 ligation on specific antibody production by human B cells to influenza virus. The antibody response was T cell dependent and specific for the strain of influenza virus used as antigen. Addition of either CD40 mAb or recombinant trimeric CD40L profoundly inhibited specific antibody production. Antibody production by unseparated tonsillar mononuclear cells and by T-depleted B cells stimulated with antigen in the presence of T cell replacing factor were equally inhibited with CD40 antibody showing that the effect was due to ligation of CD40 on B cells rather than blocking of T cell help. The specific antibody detected in these experiments was mostly IgG with little or no IgM and was obtained from surface IgM B cells consistent with activation of a secondary (memory) response. Co-stimulation of tonsillar B cells with CD40 antibody and anti-IgG induced proliferation of IgG+ B cells. These results suggest that CD40 ligation can inhibit specific antibody responses and stimulate proliferation in the same IgG+ (memory) B cell subpopulation. Addition of CD40 antibody during the first 24-48 h of the response was required for inhibition, suggesting that the effect was on early B cell activation and/or proliferation required for antibody production. There was no correlation, however, between the ability of CD40 mAb to stimulate proliferation and inhibit antibody production. We suggest that early activation of CD40 in the specific antibody response inhibits the formation of plasma cells and promotes instead the generation of memory cells.

CD40 ligand (CD40L) expression and B cell function in agammaglobulinemia with normal or elevated levels of IgM (HIM). Comparison of X-linked, autosomal recessive, and non-X-linked forms of the disease, and obligate carriers

Hyper-IgM syndrome is a rare immunodeficiency characterized by low or absent IgG, IgA, and IgE with normal or elevated levels of IgM. It can occur as an acquired or familial disorder with either X-linked or autosomal modes of inheritance. The X-linked form (HIGM1) is a result of mutations in the CD40 ligand (CD40L) gene, but the defect in non-X-linked forms of the disease (HIM) has not been determined. We show here that CD40L expression on activated T cells from non-X-linked patients can be detected by CD40Fc, 5c8 Mab, and anti-TRAP, whereas activated T cells from HIGM1 patients either had no detectable CD40L (Type I), or stained with anti-TRAP but not CD40Fc or 5c8 (Type II). Activated T cells from obligate carriers varied from low to normal expression of CD40L. B cells from HIGM1 and non-X-linked HIM patients proliferated in response to CD40L. Costimulation of B cells from HIGM1, from sporadic HIM, or from non-X-linked HIM patients with CD40L plus IL-2 resulted in some IgM production, but no significant IgG or IgA. Costimulation with CD40L plus IL-10 resulted in significant IgG and/or IgA secretion by B cells from some HIGM1 patients, but consistently failed to stimulate IgG or IgA secretion by B cells from non-X-linked patients. In addition, costimulation with CD40L and IL-4 failed to induce IgE secretion by B cells from one non-X-linked HIM patient, and induced a weak response in another. These results suggest that patients with non-X-linked forms of HIM may have an intrinsic B cell defect preventing heavy chain switching, which is not related to expression of CD40L.

CD40 ligand (CD40L) expression and B cell function in agammaglobulinemia with normal or elevated levels of IgM (HIM). Comparison of X-linked, autosomal recessive, and non-X-linked forms of the disease, and obligate carriers

Hyper-IgM syndrome is a rare immunodeficiency characterized by low or absent IgG, IgA, and IgE with normal or elevated levels of IgM. It can occur as an acquired or familial disorder with either X-linked or autosomal modes of inheritance. The X-linked form (HIGM1) is a result of mutations in the CD40 ligand (CD40L) gene, but the defect in non-X-linked forms of the disease (HIM) has not been determined. We show here that CD40L expression on activated T cells from non-X-linked patients can be detected by CD40Fc, 5c8 Mab, and anti-TRAP, whereas activated T cells from HIGM1 patients either had no detectable CD40L (Type I), or stained with anti-TRAP but not CD40Fc or 5c8 (Type II). Activated T cells from obligate carriers varied from low to normal expression of CD40L. B cells from HIGM1 and non-X-linked HIM patients proliferated in response to CD40L. Costimulation of B cells from HIGM1, from sporadic HIM, or from non-X-linked HIM patients with CD40L plus IL-2 resulted in some IgM production, but no significant IgG or IgA. Costimulation with CD40L plus IL-10 resulted in significant IgG and/or IgA secretion by B cells from some HIGM1 patients, but consistently failed to stimulate IgG or IgA secretion by B cells from non-X-linked patients. In addition, costimulation with CD40L and IL-4 failed to induce IgE secretion by B cells from one non-X-linked HIM patient, and induced a weak response in another. These results suggest that patients with non-X-linked forms of HIM may have an intrinsic B cell defect preventing heavy chain switching, which is not related to expression of CD40L.

SAS, a gene amplified in human sarcomas, encodes a new member of the transmembrane 4 superfamily of proteins

Amplification of 12q13-14 occurs in a subset of human sarcomas including malignant fibrous histiocytoma and liposarcoma. This chromosomal region has previously been found to include a number of growth-related genes including the GLI proto-oncogene and the p53-associated protein, MDM2. We now report the characterization of SAS (sarcoma amplified sequence), a novel transcript found in this region. Sequence analysis demonstrates that SAS is a novel member of a transmembrane protein family (transmembrane 4 superfamily or TM4SF) thought to be involved in growth-related cellular processes. This observation adds a TM4SF protein to the cluster of genes at 12q13-14 frequently amplified in human sarcomas.

The surface structure of Leptotrichia buccalis

Leptotrichia buccalis shows a mosaic of surface structure on its outer membrane consisting of curved ridges 35 mm high and 22 nm apart, and erect on that surface. Fimbriae (common pili) are not present and nor is an S layer. The flap-like ridges consist of strings of macromolecules radiating from the cell surface. This ridge structure is not soluble in any of the usual chaotropes and can only be released when the outer membrane has been damaged or dispersed by extracting envelope preparations with 0.5% SDS at room temperature. The ridge is then found to be attached firmly to the peptidoglycan sacculus, which may be the point of origin of the structure. When so prepared the macromolecules forming the ridge can be removed from the sacculus by treatment with 6 M guanidine HCl, and SDS-PAGE analysis of the extract reveals a 210-kDa polypeptide as a major component and a 15-kDa minor component. The latter is probably a peptidoglycan-associated protein and much of it remains with the sacculus. Each string forming the ridge is of a volume consistent with being made of three elongated 210-kDa molecules, which are united in series by strong hydrophobic association and laterally with neighboring strings by slightly weaker forces. We confirm that L. buccalis causes haemagglutination and the bacteria are known to attach to various tissue cells. Human group A red blood corpuscles remove both of the proteins from solution, which supports the hypothesis that the ridges are adhesin structures. It is likely but not proven that the 210-kDa molecule is the adhesin.

Uremic pericarditis in chronic renal failure: nursing implications

Cardiovascular complications are the leading cause of death in patients with chronic renal failure. Pericardial disease is among the first recognized manifestations of uremia. This article explores the pathophysiology of uremic pericarditis, assessment of chronic renal failure patients at risk for developing pericarditis, and major complications of pericarditis. Current treatment modalities and nursing care for the patient with uremic pericarditis are included.

Interleukin 6 is not required for antigen-specific antibody responses by human B cells

Interleukin-6 (IL-6) is a late-acting differentiation factor for human B cells activated by polyclonal mitogens such as pokeweed mitogen (PWM) and Staphylococcus aureus Cowan strain I, but its role in specific antibody responses has not been established. We show here that IL-6 has no consistent effect on specific antibody responses by tonsillar mononuclear cells (TMC) stimulated with influenza virus. A blocking IL-6 antibody also had no effect on antibody production, suggesting that endogenous IL-6 production was not required. In control experiments, this antibody inhibited PWM-stimulated immunoglobulin secretion and proliferation of the IL-6-dependent B cell line B9. A requirement for IL-6 in responses of unfractionated TMC may have been disguised by the presence of T cells. To overcome this problem, we investigated the effect of IL-6 on specific antibody production by T-depleted B cells stimulated with antigen in the presence of IL-2, which is a T cell replacing factor (TRF) for human B cells. Specific antibody production was restored by IL-2, but not IL-6. Neither IL-6 nor anti-IL-6 antibody had any consistent effect on specific antibody production by purified B cells stimulated with antigen and TRF. These experiments show that IL-6 does not have a significant role in antigen (influenza virus)-specific antibody responses by human B lymphocytes.

The S-layer of Caulobacter crescentus: three-dimensional image reconstruction and structure analysis by electron microscopy

The regular surface protein structure (S-layer) of Caulobacter crescentus was analyzed by electron microscopy and three-dimensional image reconstruction to a resolution of 2 nm. Projections showed that the S-layer is an array of ring structures, each composed of six subunits that are arranged on a lattice with p6 symmetry. Three-dimensional reconstructions showed that the ring subunits were approximately rod-shaped structures and were perpendicular to the plane of the array, with a linker arm emanating from approximately the middle of the rod, accounting for the connections between the rings. The calculated subunit mass was ca. 100 kDa, very close to the size of RsaA (the protein known to be at least the predominant species in the S-layer) predicted from the DNA sequence of the rsaA gene. The core region of the rings creates an open pore 2.5 to 3.5 nm in diameter. The size of the gaps between the neighboring unit cells is in the same range, suggesting a uniform porosity predicted to exclude molecules larger than ca. 17 kDa. Attempts to remove membrane material from S-layer preparations with detergents revealed that the structure spontaneously rearranged into a mirror-image double layer. Negative-stain and thin-section electron microscopy examination of colonies of C. crescentus strains with a mutation in a surface molecule involved in the attachment of the S-layer showed that shed RsaA protein organized into large sheets. The sheets in turn organized into stacks that tended to accumulate near the upper surface of the colony. Image reconstruction indicated that these sheets were also precise mirror-image double layers, and thickness measurements obtained from thin sections were consistent with this finding. The sheets were absent when these mutant strains were grown without calcium, supporting other data that calcium is involved in attachment of the S-layer to a surface molecule and perhaps in subunit-subunit interactions. We propose that when the membrane is removed from S-layer fragments by detergents or the attachment-related surface molecule is absent, the attachment sites of the S-layer align precisely to form a double layer via a calcium interaction.

Wearable air supply for pneumatic artificial hearts and ventricular assist devices

An experimental wearable air supply for pneumatic artificial hearts and ventricular assist devices has been built and tested. The unit eliminates the need for tethering to a large, stationery driver. The miniaturized air supply is designed for ambulatory patients with implanted pulsatile pneumatic total artificial hearts (TAH) or pneumatic left-ventricular assist devices (LVAD), to permit mobility in clinical and home settings. The device has major short-term utility as a supply for pneumatic TAH or VAD bridges in patients awaiting heart transplants. The system design for the wearable driver includes a novel, fast rotary compressor, driven by a brushless direct current (DC) motor to supply air to the ventricle through an electromagnetically actuated directional valve, all controlled by a microcomputer. Stroke volume from 0 to 200 cc; pulse rate from 60 to 160 bpm, and duty cycle from 33% to 50% are selected on a keyboard, and the selected or measured parameters can be shown on a liquid crystal display. For control of delivery from a single ventricular assist device, stroke volume is controlled by variation of compressor speed. In the wearable air supply for a TAH, a single compressor drives both ventricles alternately through a double-acting directional valve. Air volume delivered to the left ventricle is adjusted by variation of compressor speed, and air volume to the right ventricle by variation of ejection time. The effect on blood flow rate of the lower impedance to the right ventricle is compensated by provision of a two-stage compressor, in which a single stage drives the right ventricle, and both stages connected in parallel drive the left ventricle. The overall dimensions of the prototype air supply for driving either a TAH or LVAD are 4.5 by 7.8 by 4.5 inches, including an emergency battery with a duration of 15 to 30 min depending on load. The weight is presently 5.5 lb, but this will be reduced in a production design and for a dedicated LVAD air supply. The size and weight of a separately worn, rechargeable battery pack depend on the load and desired duration of operation.

SAS amplification in soft tissue sarcomas

Gene amplification is an important mechanism of increased gene expression in a number of human solid tumors. We have recently identified and cloned sequences from a novel DNA amplification unit in malignant fibrous histiocytoma. The amplified sequences are derived from chromosome 12q13-14 and encode a gene designated SAS (sarcoma amplified sequence). In the present study, a series of soft tissue sarcomas was studied to characterize further the phenomenon of SAS amplification. Seven of 22 (32%) malignant fibrous histiocytomas and three liposarcomas contained SAS amplification. Strikingly, all of the tumors with SAS amplification occurred in central sites (i.e., in the abdominal or inguinal regions) rather than in the extremities (i.e., in the arms of legs). These observations demonstrate that SAS amplification occurs with a significant frequency in mesenchymal tumors and is particularly associated with abdominal disease.

Regioselectivity of the insertion reactions of some aromatic diazo compound complexes with cyclomaltoheptaose

Pyrolysis of solid complexes of aromatic diazo compounds with cyclomaltoheptaose (beta-cyclodextrin) yields either derivatives via insertion of carbene into hydroxyl groups. The distribution of the 2-, 3-, and 6-O-isomers indicates that the regioselectivity is moderate. The guest geometry is not as important as its size in determining the ratios of regioisomers. The origins of the regioselectivity are discussed.

CD19 regulation of human B cell responses. B cell proliferation and antibody secretion are inhibited or enhanced by ligation of the CD19 surface glycoprotein depending on the stimulating signal used

The regulation of human B cell proliferation and differentiation by the CD19 surface glycoprotein was investigated. As expected, proliferation induced by costimulation with anti-IgM plus IL-4 or IL-2, or with G28.8 antibody plus IL-4 was inhibited by antibody ligation of CD19. In contrast, proliferation of tonsillar B cells to mitogenic doses of PMA (5 ng/ml) or to EBV were enhanced, and proliferation of B cell lines to BCGF(low) was unaffected. Similarly, specific antibody responses by tonsillar B cells to influenza virus, and Ig secretion by the CESS lymphoblastoid cell line in response to IL-6 were inhibited, whereas polyclonal Ig production in response to EBV was enhanced. These results show that human B cell responses may be inhibited or enhanced by CD19 depending on the stimulating signal used. The difference in response to CD19 ligation did not depend on whether proliferation or differentiation was being measured, or whether stimulation was by surface Ig. In experiments using PMA as a T cell independent mitogen, it was found that ligation of CD19 inhibited proliferation of B cells costimulated with low doses of PMA plus G28.5 (CD40) antibody, but enhanced the response to higher (mitogenic) doses with or without costimulation with G28.5. The change from inhibition to enhancement occurred over a very small increase in PMA dose (0.5-1.0 ng/ml) that corresponded exactly to the lowest dose required for mitogenic activity. Finally, we showed that CD19 ligation inhibited the increase in surface expression of CD23, but not IgM, induced by IL-4, showing that CD19 ligation can have opposed effects on different responses to the same signal. Together our results suggest that CD19 activation of human B cells interacts with other signaling events to enhance or inhibit the subsequent response.

CD19 regulation of human B cell responses. B cell proliferation and antibody secretion are inhibited or enhanced by ligation of the CD19 surface glycoprotein depending on the stimulating signal used

The regulation of human B cell proliferation and differentiation by the CD19 surface glycoprotein was investigated. As expected, proliferation induced by costimulation with anti-IgM plus IL-4 or IL-2, or with G28.8 antibody plus IL-4 was inhibited by antibody ligation of CD19. In contrast, proliferation of tonsillar B cells to mitogenic doses of PMA (5 ng/ml) or to EBV were enhanced, and proliferation of B cell lines to BCGF(low) was unaffected. Similarly, specific antibody responses by tonsillar B cells to influenza virus, and Ig secretion by the CESS lymphoblastoid cell line in response to IL-6 were inhibited, whereas polyclonal Ig production in response to EBV was enhanced. These results show that human B cell responses may be inhibited or enhanced by CD19 depending on the stimulating signal used. The difference in response to CD19 ligation did not depend on whether proliferation or differentiation was being measured, or whether stimulation was by surface Ig. In experiments using PMA as a T cell independent mitogen, it was found that ligation of CD19 inhibited proliferation of B cells costimulated with low doses of PMA plus G28.5 (CD40) antibody, but enhanced the response to higher (mitogenic) doses with or without costimulation with G28.5. The change from inhibition to enhancement occurred over a very small increase in PMA dose (0.5-1.0 ng/ml) that corresponded exactly to the lowest dose required for mitogenic activity. Finally, we showed that CD19 ligation inhibited the increase in surface expression of CD23, but not IgM, induced by IL-4, showing that CD19 ligation can have opposed effects on different responses to the same signal. Together our results suggest that CD19 activation of human B cells interacts with other signaling events to enhance or inhibit the subsequent response.

Immunogenicity of inactivated influenza vaccine in residential homes for elderly people

One hundred and seventy residents of 11 Leicester City Council homes for the elderly, with a total of 515 beds, were studied during a 30-week period from September 1988 to March 1989 to determine the use of influenza vaccine, the levels of influenza antibody, the incidence of influenza, and the protection afforded by vaccination. The study group of 133 women and 37 men had a mean age of 85 years and 59% had one or more chronic medical conditions. The immunization rates by home for the 170 symptomatic residents ranged from 8% to 90% (mean 45%). Seventy-one sera, 36 from vaccinated and 35 from non-vaccinated residents were collected between 1 December 1988 and 24 March 1989 and were assayed for antibody to A/Taiwan/1/86 (H1N1), A Sichuan/2/87 (H3N2) and B/Beijing/1/87. Analysis revealed no statistically significant differences between the antibody profiles of vaccinated and unvaccinated subjects. Six influenza A and 6 influenza B infections were confirmed among the 170 subjects with upper respiratory tract infections. Influenza vaccination was not associated with significant levels of protection against influenza A or B. Studies of the haemagglutinins of the vaccine strains and influenza isolates during 1988/89 showed that they were closely related.

Isolation and comparison of the paracrystalline surface layer proteins of freshwater caulobacters

Several methods for isolation of the paracrystalline surface (S) layer protein (RsaA) of Caulobacter crescentus CB15A were evaluated. Treatment of cells with HEPES (N-2-hydroxyethylpiperazine-N'-2-ethanesulfonic acid) buffer at pH 2 was the most effective means of selectively removing RsaA from cells, and after neutralization, the protein was capable of reassembling into a paracrystalline structure. Ethylene glycol-bis(beta-aminoethyl ether)-N,N,N',N'-tetraacetic acid treatment could also be used to extract RsaA and yielded protein capable of reassembly. The success of the methods was likely related to disruption of calcium-mediated bonding; calcium was required for recrystallization, while magnesium and strontium ions were ineffective. Antibody was raised against purified RsaA and, along with the S-layer extraction techniques, was used to evaluate 42 strains of caulobacters isolated from a variety of aquatic and wastewater treatment locations. A single characteristic protein could be isolated from the 35 strains that produced an S layer; with one exception, no proteins were extracted from strains that had no S layer. The presumed S-layer proteins ranged in size from 100 to 193 kDa. All of these proteins specifically reacted with anti-RsaA serum by Western immunoblot analysis. In strain CB15A, a specific S-layer-associated oligosaccharide has been proposed to be involved in a calcium-mediated attachment of the S layer to the cell surface. This molecule was detected by Western immunoblotting with a specific antiserum and on polyacrylamide gels stained for polysaccharides. A comparable band was found in all S-layer-producing strains and for most, S-layer-associated oligosaccharide-specific antibody reacted with them in Western analysis. Overall, in freshwater caulobacters at least portions of their S-layer structures appear to be strongly conserved entities, as well as the means of attachment to the cell surface.

Activation of human B cells through the CD19 surface antigen results in homotypic adhesion by LFA-1-dependent and -independent mechanisms

Addition of CD19 monoclonal antibodies (mAb) to highly purified tonsillar B cells resulted in homotypic adhesion and the formation of cell clusters. This response was completely blocked by antibody to LFA-1, indicating an LFA-1-dependent adhesion mechanism. In contrast, aggregate formation by B cells activated with phorbol myristate acetate (PMA) was only partially inhibited by anti-LFA-1 antibody, and those formed in response to PMA plus CD19 antibody were not inhibited at all, suggesting aggregation of activated B cells stimulated with CD19 antibody was LFA-1 independent. This was confirmed with B-cell lines. The pre-B-cell line Nalm-6 formed aggregates in response to CD19 antibody which were not inhibited with anti-LFA-1. In addition, CD19 antibody induced aggregate formation by an Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-transformed B-cell line derived from an LFA-1-deficient donor. These results suggest that different adhesion molecules may operate at different stages of B-cell activation, and that CD19 may be important in cell-cell interactions involved in regulation of antibody responses.

Agglutination of blood cardioplegia by cold-reacting autoantibodies

Cold-reacting autoantibodies occasionally occur in patients requiring cardiac operations. This report describes the clinical course of 1 patient with cold-reacting autoantibodies and intracoronary agglutination of the blood cardioplegia solution. Observations made in vivo and in vitro are considered in discussing recommendations for the management of extracorporeal circulation and cardioplegic arrest in patients with clinically silent cold-reacting autoantibodies.