The use of the Oxford hip and knee scores

The Oxford hip and knee scores have been extensively used since they were first described in 1996 and 1998. During this time, they have been modified and used for many different purposes. This paper describes how they should be used and seeks to clarify areas of confusion.

Hippocampal damage and memory impairments as possible early brain complications of type 2 diabetes

AIMS/HYPOTHESIS

There is evidence that type 2 diabetes mellitus is associated with cognitive impairment. Most studies investigating this association have evaluated elderly individuals, after many years of diabetes, who generally have poor glycaemic control and significant vascular disease. The aim of the current study was to investigate the early cognitive consequences and associated brain correlates of type 2 diabetes.

MATERIALS AND METHODS

With regard to cognition and brain measures, we compared 23 age-, sex- and education-matched control subjects with 23 mostly middle-aged individuals with relatively well-controlled diabetes of less than 10 years from the time of diagnosis.

RESULTS

We found deficits in hippocampal-based memory performance and preservation of other cognitive domains. Relative to control subjects, individuals with diabetes had reductions in brain volumes that were restricted to the hippocampus. There was an inverse relationship between glycaemic control and hippocampal volume; in multivariate regression analysis, HbA(1c) was the only significant predictor of hippocampal volume, accounting for 33% of the observed variance. Other variables commonly associated with type 2 diabetes, such as elevated BMI, hypertension or dyslipidaemia, did not independently contribute to the variance in hippocampal volume.

CONCLUSIONS/INTERPRETATION

These results suggest that the medial temporal lobe may be the first brain site affected by type 2 diabetes and that individuals in poorer metabolic control may be affected to a greater extent.

Mouse/human chimeric monoclonal antibody in man: kinetics and immune response

A mouse/human chimeric monoclonal antibody (mAb) composed of the variable regions of murine 17-1A mAb and the constant regions of human IgG-1K immunoglobulin was administered to 10 patients with metastatic colon cancer. Four patients received single infusion of 10 mg (n = 2) or 40 mg (n = 2). Six patients received three infusion of 10 mg (n = 3) or 40 mg (n = 3) at 2-week intervals. The pharmacokinetics were similar at both dose levels and at the second and third infusions. The plasma disappearance curves were best fit by a two-compartment model having a mean alpha T1/2 of 17.5 hr (range 13-23 hr) and a mean beta T1/2 of 100.5 hr (range 65-139 hr). One patient who received three 40-mg doses of chimeric IgG-1K 17-1A mAb (day 0, 14, and 28) was the only patient to exhibit a detectable but modest antibody reactivity to chimera on days 63 and 84. The antibody reactivity was inhibited by murine 17-1A mAb, indicating that the antibody response was directed to the murine variable region of the chimera. The patients had no toxic or allergic reactions. This chimeric form of 17-1A mAb has an approximate 6-fold longer circulation time and appears to be substantially less immunogenic than its murine counterpart. These characteristics may provide an advantage in the clinical application of such chimeric molecules in therapeutic trials in humans.

Canine neoplasia in the UK: estimates of incidence rates from a population of insured dogs

Neoplasia is common in pet dogs but accurate figures for the incidence of tumours in this, as in other species, are sparse. The purpose of this study was to document the occurrence of tumours in a defined population of dogs. From a database of 130,684 insured dogs, claims relating to the investigation or treatment of tumours or tumour-like lesions during a 12-month period were accessed and followed up. A total of 2,546 claims were tumour related and were classified according to tumour site and type. Because the demographics of the insured population were skewed towards younger animals, a standard population, as described in the veterinary literature, was used in the calculation of tumour incidence rates. The skin and soft tissues were the most common sites for tumour development, with a standardised incidence rate of 1,437 per 100,000 dogs per year, followed by alimentary (210), mammary (205), urogenital (139), lymphoid (134), endocrine (113) and oropharyngeal (112). Canine cutaneous histiocytoma was the most common single tumour type, with a standardised incidence rate of 337 per 100,000 dogs per year, followed by lipoma (318), adenoma (175), soft tissue sarcoma (142), mast cell tumour (129) and lymphosarcoma (114). These data are unique and provide a valuable basis for future research into the aetiology and epidemiology of canine tumours.

Visuospatial impairment in Parkinson's disease. Role of perceptual and motor factors

We investigated the role of perceptual and motor factors in visuospatial impairment in 30 patients with Parkinson's disease (PD) and 30 matched controls. All subjects were administered visuospatial tests, which included "visuoperceptual" tasks, requiring minimal motor responses, and "visuomotor" tasks. The performance of patients with PD was considerably impaired on several tasks from both groups, and this impairment was not related to depression or intellectual impairment. Patients in stage 3 of the disease tended to show the greatest impairment. Those in stage 1 (unilateral symptoms), however, tended to show more impairment than those in stage 2.

Out-of-hospital cardiac arrest: factors associated with survival

One hundred eighty-seven cases of cardiac arrest of presumed cardiac etiology were analyzed to determine factors associated with successful out-of-hospital management by paramedic teams. Field and in-hospital records were reviewed to determine the response time of the advanced life support team, the ECG rhythm on arrival, the presence of paramedics on scene at the time of the arrest, whether bystander CPR had been initiated, and the eventual outcome of the resuscitation attempt. A significant difference in survival-to-leave-hospital was seen in patients in whom ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia (VF/VT) was present on arrival (15.3%) compared to patients with asystole, idioventricular rhythms, blocks, or electromechanical dissociation (3.4%). Survival rates in patients in whom CPR was being performed by a bystander were 24% in the VF/VT group and zero in the "OTHER" rhythms group. When the advanced life support team arrived in less than four minutes, survival rates in the VF/VT group and "OTHER" rhythms group were 23.1% and 7.7%, respectively. When the field team arrived in less than four minutes and a bystander was performing CPR, the survival rates were 42.9% in the VF/VT group and 15.8% in the "OTHER." These data suggest that efforts to improve survival from out-of-hospital cardiac arrest in a community should be directed toward public education, reduction in response times of paramedic units, and lay CPR training.

Prevalence of anal human papillomavirus infection and intraepithelial neoplasia in renal allograft recipients

A study was performed to test the hypothesis that renal allograft recipients are at high risk of developing anal human papillomavirus (HPV) infection and anal intraepithelial neoplasia (AIN). A total of 133 renal allograft recipients and 145 control patients underwent anoscopy and biopsy. A polymerase chain reaction was used to detect HPV16 DNA in biopsy samples. A histological diagnosis of anal HPV infection or AIN was made in 32 allograft recipients (HPV infection, five; AIN I, 20; AIN II, three; AIN III, three; AIN III and anal cancer, one). One subject with AIN was detected in the control group. HPV16 DNA was detected in 47 and 12.4 per cent of anal biopsies in the allograft and control groups respectively. Renal allograft recipients are at high risk of developing anal HPV infection and neoplasia (P < 0.05). Further studies are required to determine whether screening anal examination is required in organ allograft recipients.

Mangrove Sedimentation and Response to Relative Sea-Level Rise

Mangroves occur on upper intertidal shorelines in the tropics and subtropics. Complex hydrodynamic and salinity conditions, related primarily to elevation and hydroperiod, influence mangrove distributions; this review considers how these distributions change over time. Accumulation rates of allochthonous and autochthonous sediment, both inorganic and organic, vary between and within different settings. Abundant terrigenous sediment can form dynamic mudbanks, and tides redistribute sediment, contrasting with mangrove peat in sediment-starved carbonate settings. Sediments underlying mangroves sequester carbon but also contain paleoenvironmental records of adjustments to past sea-level changes. Radiometric dating indicates long-term sedimentation, whereas measurements made using surface elevation tables and marker horizons provide shorter perspectives, indicating shallow subsurface processes of root growth and substrate autocompaction. Many tropical deltas also experience deep subsidence, which augments relative sea-level rise. The persistence of mangroves implies an ability to cope with moderately high rates of relative sea-level rise. However, many human pressures threaten mangroves, resulting in a continuing decline in their extent throughout the tropics.

Untargeted and Targeted Discrimination of Honey Collected by Apis cerana and Apis mellifera Based on Volatiles Using HS-GC-IMS and HS-SPME-GC-MS

Fraudulent acts regarding honey authenticity that use Apis mellifera honey as a substitute for Apis cerana honey have garnered considerable concern in China and triggered a trust crisis from consumers. In this study, untargeted metabolomics analysis was carried out based on volatile fractions in honey from A. cerana and A. mellifera using headspace gas chromatography-ion mobility spectrometry (HS-GC-IMS). Honey from A. cerana and A. mellifera was discriminated by HS-GC-IMS profiling, principal component analysis, and orthogonal partial least-squares discrimination analysis. Tentative markers were identified from p-values and the variable importance in projection analysis and confirmed using the retention index, mass fragments, and reference standards by gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS). A targeted method was established using the headspace solid phase coupled with microextraction GC-MS (HS-SPME-GC-MS) to quantitate the markers. The results demonstrated that the developed untargeted and targeted metabolomics approach performed well when discriminating honey from A. cerana and A. mellifera.

Global patterns of care in advanced stage mycosis fungoides/Sezary syndrome: a multicenter retrospective follow-up study from the Cutaneous Lymphoma International Consortium

BACKGROUND

Advanced-stage mycosis fungoides (MF)/Sézary syndrome (SS) patients are weighted by an unfavorable prognosis and share an unmet clinical need of effective treatments. International guidelines are available detailing treatment options for the different stages but without recommending treatments in any particular order due to lack of comparative trials. The aims of this second CLIC study were to retrospectively analyze the pattern of care worldwide for advanced-stage MF/SS patients, the distribution of treatments according to geographical areas (USA versus non-USA), and whether the heterogeneity of approaches has potential impact on survival.

PATIENTS AND METHODS

This study included 853 patients from 21 specialist centers (14 European, 4 USA, 1 each Australian, Brazilian, and Japanese).

RESULTS

Heterogeneity of treatment approaches was found, with up to 24 different modalities or combinations used as first-line and 36% of patients receiving four or more treatments. Stage IIB disease was most frequently treated by total-skin-electron-beam radiotherapy, bexarotene and gemcitabine; erythrodermic and SS patients by extracorporeal photochemotherapy, and stage IVA2 by polychemotherapy. Significant differences were found between USA and non-USA centers, with bexarotene, photopheresis and histone deacetylase inhibitors most frequently prescribed for first-line treatment in USA while phototherapy, interferon, chlorambucil and gemcitabine in non-USA centers. These differences did not significantly impact on survival. However, when considering death and therapy change as competing risk events and the impact of first treatment line on both events, both monochemotherapy (SHR = 2.07) and polychemotherapy (SHR = 1.69) showed elevated relative risks.

CONCLUSION

This large multicenter retrospective study shows that there exist a large treatment heterogeneity in advanced MF/SS and differences between USA and non-USA centers but these were not related to survival, while our data reveal that chemotherapy as first treatment is associated with a higher risk of death and/or change of therapy and thus other therapeutic options should be preferable as first treatment approach.

Amyloid-beta proteins activate Ca(2+)-permeable channels through calcium-sensing receptors

The amyloid-beta peptides (A beta) are produced in excess in Alzheimer's disease (AD) and may contribute to neuronal dysfunction and degeneration. This study provides strong evidence for a novel cellular target for the actions of A beta, the phospholipase C-coupled, extracellular Ca(2+)-sensing receptor (CaR). We demonstrate that A beta(s) produce a CaR-mediated activation of a Ca(2+)-permeable, nonselective cation channel (NCC), probably via elevation in cytosolic Ca2+ (Cai), in cultured hippocampal pyramidal neurons from normal rats and from wild type mice but not those from mice with targeted disruption of the CaR gene (CaR -/-). A beta(s) also activate NCC in CaR-transfected but not in nontransfected human embryonic kidney (HEK293) cells. Thus aggregates of A beta deposited on hippocampal neurons in AD could appropriately activate the CaR, stimulating Ca(2+)-permeable channels and causing sustained elevation of Cai with resultant neuronal dysfunction.

Identification and localization of extracellular Ca(2+)-sensing receptor in rat intestine

The extracellular calcium (Ca2+o)-sensing receptor (CaR) plays vital roles in Ca2+o homeostasis, but no data are available on its expression in small and large intestine. Polymerase chain reaction products amplified from reverse-transcribed duodenal RNA using CaR-specific primers showed > 99% homology with the rat kidney CaR. Northern analysis with a CaR-specific cRNA probe demonstrated 4.1- and 7.5-kb transcripts in all intestinal segments. Immunohistochemistry with CaR-specific antisera showed clear basal staining of epithelial cells of small intestinal villi and crypts and modest apical staining of the former, whereas there was both basal and apical staining of colonic crypt epithelial cells. In situ hybridization and immunohistochemistry also demonstrated CaR expression in Auerbach's myenteric plexus of small and large intestines and in the submucosa in the region of Meissner's plexus. Our results reveal CaR expression in several cell types of small and large intestine, in which it may modulate absorptive and/or secretomotor functions.

Anal intraepithelial neoplasia: part of a multifocal disease process

Invasive carcinomas of the anogenital epithelium share a common aetiological factor--human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16. Although genital intraepithelial neoplasia may be multifocal, there have been no studies of the prevalence of anal intraepithelial neoplasia in women with intraepithelial neoplasia of the genital tract. We tested the hypothesis that women with high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia are at higher risk of disease in the anus than are control women of similar age with no history of anogenital neoplasia. 29 (19%) of 152 women with cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade III had histological evidence of anal intraepithelial neoplasia. Of the 29 patients, 11 had grade III anal lesions; 2 of those women had concomitant invasive anal squamous-cell carcinomas. Only 7% (8/115) women with high-grade lesions of the cervix alone had evidence of anal intraepithelial neoplasia; by contrast, 57% (21/37) of those with more than one focus of intraepithelial neoplasia (cervix plus vulva, vagina, or both) had anal lesions. HPV 16 DNA was identified in 18 (51%) of 35 anal biopsy samples in the study group. No evidence of anal intraepithelial neoplasia was found in the control group (50 women), although 2 patients had grade I cervical lesions. HPV 16 DNA was identified in 12 (24%) of biopsy samples from the cervix and 7 (14%) from the anus in the control group; all 7 women with anal HPV 16 had concomitant cervical infection. The role of anal examination in the assessment of women with any focus of genital intraepithelial neoplasia requires further investigation.

Characteristics and outcome of hospitalized adolescent girls with conduct disorder

Fifty-five adolescent girls with conduct disorder from a psychiatric hospital were examined with a structured interview schedule and then reevaluated 2 to 4 years later. The majority also had depressive or anxiety disorders. The criteria used for conduct disorder were less weighted toward violent crime and differed from the criteria in DSM-III-R. Their outcome was poor; 6% had died a violent death, the majority had dropped out of school, one-third were pregnant before the age of 17, half were rearrested, and many suffered traumatic injuries. Diagnoses of depression or anxiety disorders at the index admission were not associated with a better outcome.

Mechanism of malignant hypercalcaemia in carcinoma of the breast

To investigate the mechanisms of hypercalcaemia in carcinoma of the breast, 22 patients with hypercalcaemia due to metastatic carcinoma were studied and the findings compared with those obtained in normal subjects and patients with benign and malignant breast disease without hypercalcaemia. As expected, patients with metastases of bone showed biochemical evidence of increased bone resorption. Whereas all patients with hypercalcaemia had skeletal metastases, not all patients with skeletal metastases had hypercalcaemia despite considerable degrees of bone resorption. The presence of hypercalcaemia was associated with a significant increase in renal tubular reabsorption of calcium (p less than 0.001) and decreased reabsorption of phosphate (p less than 0.001) despite adequate rehydration of patients. These studies suggest that increased renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, possibly mediated by a humoral factor with activity similar to that of parathyroid hormone, contributes appreciably to the hypercalcaemia of malignant breast disease.

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)-specific intravenous immunoglobulin for the prevention of primary CMV infection and disease after marrow transplant

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)-specific immunoglobulin (IVIG) was evaluated in a randomized controlled trial in CMV-seronegative marrow transplant patients with seropositive marrow donors for the prevention of primary CMV infection during the first 100 days after transplant. Patients received 200 mg/kg CMV IVIG on days 8 and 6 before transplant, the day after transplant, weekly for the first month, and then every 2 weeks to complete 10 doses. Patients were followed with weekly CMV cultures and serologic studies and for clinical and histologic evidence of CMV disease. Sixty patients were evaluable in each group. There was significantly less CMV excretion (P = .04) and viremia (P = .01) in the treatment group. However, the incidence of CMV disease including CMV pneumonia, CMV enteritis, and CMV syndrome (fever, leukopenia, hepatitis) was not statistically different. There was also no difference in median time of onset of CMV infection or disease, median number of hospital days, or survival between the two groups.

Agonists of the Ca(2+)-sensing receptor (CaR) activate nonselective cation channels in HEK293 cells stably transfected with the human CaR

Calcium (Ca2+) ions serve multiple roles both intra- and extracellularly. We recently cloned a cell surface, Cao(2+)-sensing receptor (CaR) that plays a central role in Cao2+ homeostasis by enabling direct regulation by Cao2+ of parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion and the function of other tissues involved in mineral ion homeostasis. In parathyroid cells, the CaR activates phospholipase C, thereby raising the levels of inositol trisphosphate (IP3) and releasing Ca2+ from intracellular stores. High Cao2+ also activates Ca2+ influx into parathyroid cells through poorly defined mechanisms that may involve Ca(2+)-permeable, nonselective cation channels (NCC). We now show that human embryonic kidney (HEK293) cells also have NCC and, furthermore, that these channels are regulated by the CaR. We have utilized the cell-attached configuration of the patch clamp technique to characterize the properties of these channels as well as their regulation by various CaR agonists added to the external bath solution. The polycationic CaR agonist, neomycin (100 microM), as well as an elevated concentration of Cao2+ (3 mM), both of which activate the cloned CaR, significantly increased the probability of channel opening (Po) in HEK cells stably transfected with the CaR but not in nontransfected HEK cells which do not contain the receptor. Thus, the activation of the CaR enhances the activity of Ca(2+)-permeable NCC in these cells, which could contribute to the sustained increase in Cai2+ in parathyroid cells which is observed in response to elevated Cao2+. The CaR may also regulate the membrane functions of other CaR-expressing cells (e.g., those in the brain), at least in part, by modulating similar channels.

Three amino acid residues determine selective binding of FK506-binding protein 12.6 to the cardiac ryanodine receptor

FK506-binding protein (FKBP12) has been found to be associated with the skeletal muscle ryanodine receptor (RyR1) (calcium release channel), whereas FKBP12.6, a novel isoform of FKBP, is selectively associated with the cardiac ryanodine receptor (RyR2). For both RyRs, the stoichiometry is 4 FKBP/RyR. Although FKBP12.6 differs from FKBP12 by only 18 of 108 amino acids, FKBP12.6 selectively binds to RyR2 and exchanges with bound FKBP12.6 of RyR2, whereas both FKBP isoforms bind to RyR1 and exchange with bound FKBP12 of RyR1. To assess the amino acid residues of FKBP12.6 that are critical for selective binding to RyR2, the residues of FKBP12.6 that differ with FKBP12 were mutated to the respective residues of FKBP12. RyR2 of cardiac sarcoplasmic reticulum, prelabeled by exchange with [35S]FKBP12.6, was used as assay system for binding/exchange with the mutants. The triple mutant (Q31E/N32D/F59W) of FKBP12.6 was found to lack selective binding to the cardiac RyR2, comparable with that of FKBP12.0. In complementary studies, mutations of FKBP12 to the three critical amino acids of FKBP12.6, conferred selective binding to RyR2. Each of the FKBP12.6 and FKBP12 mutants retained binding to the skeletal muscle RyR1. We conclude that three amino acid residues (Gln31, Asn32, and Phe59) of human FKBP12.6 account for the selective binding to cardiac RyR2.

Nitrogen isotopes as a screening tool to determine the growing regimen of some organic and nonorganic supermarket produce from New Zealand

An isotopic study was performed on nine varieties of organically and conventionally grown vegetables from an organic food market and a chain supermarket in New Zealand. The main aim of the study was to assess the applicability of stable nitrogen isotopes as a screening tool to differentiate between organic and conventional growing conditions of various vegetable types sampled directly off supermarket shelves. This could be further used as the basis of a simple authentication tool to detect noncompliant organic farming practices and false labeling of organic produce. In this study, nitrogen isotopes are found to be an excellent way of identifying faster growing organic vegetables (maturity time to harvest of <80 days), as these vegetables tend to be significantly more enriched in (15)N than conventionally grown vegetables and natural soil N. For slower growing organic produce (maturity time to harvest of >80 days), more information would be required to understand isotopic variations and fractionation effects between vegetables and soil over time as the technique does not discriminate organic from conventional regimens for these vegetables with as much certainty.

Left ventricular size and systolic function in Thoroughbred racehorses and their relationships to race performance

Cardiac morphology in human athletes is known to differ, depending on the sports-specific endurance component of their events, whereas anecdotes abound about superlative athletes with large hearts. As the heart determines stroke volume and maximum O2 uptake in mammals, we undertook a study to test the hypothesis that the morphology of the equine heart would differ between trained horses, depending on race type, and that left ventricular size would be greatest in elite performers. Echocardiography was performed in 482 race-fit Thoroughbreds engaged in either flat (1,000–2,500 m) or jump racing (3,200–6,400 m). Body weight and sex-adjusted measures of left ventricular size were largest in horses engaged in jump racing over fixed fences, compared with horses running shorter distances on the flat (range 8–16%). The observed differences in cardiac morphologies suggest that subtle differences in training and competition result in cardiac adaptations that are appropriate to the endurance component of the horses' event. Derived left ventricular mass was strongly associated with published rating (quality) in horses racing over longer distances in jump races ( P ≤ 0.001), but less so for horses in flat races. Rather, left ventricular ejection fraction and left ventricular mass combined were positively associated with race rating in older flat racehorses running over sprint (<1,408 m) and longer distances (>1,408 m), explaining 25–35% of overall variation in performance, as well as being closely associated with performance in longer races over jumps (23%). These data provide the first direct evidence that cardiac size influences athletic performance in a group of mammalian running athletes.

The effect of ambient temperature on the shoe-surface interface release coefficient

Previous studies of the shoe-surface interface correlated foot fixation with cleat length, configuration, and material composition as well as turf type and surface conditions. Our study examined the effect of temperature on the rotational torsion resistance of artificial turf football shoes. Five football shoe models, a flat-soled basketball-style turf shoe, a natural grass soccer-style shoe, and three multistudded turf shoes, were studied on dry Astro Turf at five temperatures (range, 52 degrees F to 110 degrees F). An assay device, a prosthetic foot mounted on a loaded stainless steel shaft, was used to determine the force necessary to release a shoe from the turf's surface. We used a torque wrench to apply a rotational force so that each shoe was pivoted counterclockwise through an arc of 60 degrees. Our results indicated that release coefficients differ within and among the shoe models at various turf temperatures. We also found that an increase in turf temperature, in combination with cleat characteristics, affects shoe-surface interface friction and potentially places the athlete's knee and ankle at risk of injury. Based on an established risk criterion, which correlated shoe-surface interface combinations in the laboratory with documented clinical occurrences, only the flat-soled basketball-style turf shoe could be designated "safe" or "probably safe" at all five temperatures.

Verification of imported red wine origin into China using multi isotope and elemental analyses

Multi-isotope and multi-elemental analyses were performed on 600 red wine samples imported into China from 7 different countries and compared with Chinese wine. Carbon and oxygen isotopes and 16 elements were used to determine origin traceability. Our goal was to build a classification tool using data modeling that can verify the geographic origin of wines imported into China. Multivariate analyses of the isotopic and elemental data revealed that it is possible to determine the geographical origin for most imported wines with a high level of confidence (>90%). The results show that Artificial Neural Network method had a high discrimination accuracy and is more suitable than Discrimination Analysis and Random Forest methods when it comes to classifying wine origin on a global scale. In conclusion, stable isotope and trace element analyses followed by multivariate processing of the data is a fast and efficient technique suitable for global wine traceability.

Comparison of intradermal and serum testing for allergen-specific IgE using a Fcepsilon RIalpha-based assay in atopic dogs in the UK

Atopic dermatitis in dogs is a common allergic skin disease that affects substantial numbers of dogs in the UK. The purpose of this study was to compare the results of an intradermal test (IDT) and an in vitro test in a large cohort of dogs. Dogs were intradermal tested with Greer allergens (Greer Labs Inc, Lenoir, NC, USA) using standard techniques. At the same time blood samples were drawn and submitted for evaluation by ELISA using the ALLERCEPT Definitive Allergen Panels for allergen-specific IgE, a commercial assay that uses a biotinylated recombinant extracellular domain of the high affinity Fc-epsilon receptor alpha chain protein (Fcepsilon RIalpha). The allergens used in the two tests included grass, tree and weed pollens, moulds, flea saliva/whole flea extract and house dust mite species. The optical density readings from the ELISA for each allergen were compared with the results of the IDT for 265 dogs. The prevalence of positive reactions in the ELISA was equal to or greater than the results of the IDT in the case of almost all of the allergens, but two notable exceptions were the house dust mites Dermatophagoides farinae and Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus. These two allergens were the most common positive reactions by IDT (prevalence D. farinae 78.9%, D. pteronyssinus 66.4%). The results of the two tests were significantly different (McNemar's test, P<0.05) for 16 of the 22 allergens. The sensitivities of the ELISA compared to the IDT (where there were more than 3 dogs with positive reactions in both tests) varied between 19.3 and 77.1% (D. pteronyssinus 19.3% and D. farinae 67.9%) and the specificities varied between 64.2 and 96.6% (D. pteronyssinus 96.6% and D. farinae 89.3%).